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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three days, she has been suffering from dyspareunia and difficulty walking. She claims she has never had any sexually transmitted illnesses before. Her companion has no symptoms. She is afebrile and in good health.
On pelvic examination, a red, heated swelling measuring 4cm in diameter is discovered in the posterior end of the right labia majora. A speculum examination reveals normal-looking mucosa with no obvious discharge. There is no lymphadenopathy in the region.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?Your Answer: Marsupialization
Correct Answer: Word catheter
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Bartholin cyst abscess.
Insertion of an inflatable balloon is a non-surgical procedure that can be performed as an outpatient using a local anaesthetic (LA) injection to numb the area. It involves making a passage from the cyst or abscess through which the pus can drain over 4 weeks. After the LA injection, a small skin cut is made into the cyst or abscess, which allows drainage. A fluid/ pus swab sample may be taken to check for an infection at this stage. A cotton bud is used to break the pockets of abscess/ cyst fluid. A flexible tube (called a Word catheter) with a small, specially designed balloon at its tip is then inserted into the cyst or abscess to create a passage. The balloon is inflated with 3–4mls of sterile fluid to keep the catheter in place. Rarely, a stitch may be used to partly close the cut and hold the balloon in position. It is then left in place for up to 4 weeks; new skin to forms around the passage and the wound heals.Marsupialization can be done for drainage but is inferior or word catheter because of the technical challenges and complications. Hot compressions and analgesics alone do not suffice in the presence of an abscess. Antibiotics are given after drainage but are not effective alone when there is a large collection of pus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine.
The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation:As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.
This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).
PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
Symptoms and their timing
A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
Symptoms
B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
2) Subjective concentration problems
3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
Severity
D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
Confirmation of the condition
F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
Other medical explanations are ruled out.
G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Darifenacin
Explanation:Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
NICE pathwayPrior to initiating anticholinergics:
Bladder training
Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
1st line treatments:
1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
1. Flavoxate
2. Propantheline
3. Imipramine
2nd line treatment
Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
Mirabegron
Adjuvant Treatments
Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells.
Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?Your Answer: Her sexual partner need to be treated as well
Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months
Explanation:Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organismsBV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Correct
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Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as
Your Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is Adenomyosis. If endometrial tissue is found at a distant site to the uterus it is termed endometriosis. Fibroids are smooth muscle tumours (Leiomyoma’s) sometimes called myoma’s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).
Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?Your Answer: CTPA
Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.
Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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