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Question 1
Correct
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A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. You diagnose him with an acute coronary syndrome and prescribe enoxaparin as part of his treatment plan.
Enoxaparin inactivates which of the following?Your Answer: Thrombin
Explanation:Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that works in the same way as heparin by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin by forming a 1:1 complex with it. Factor Xa and a few other clotting proteases are also inhibited by the heparin-antithrombin III complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The correct statement regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is which of the following?
Your Answer: Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones release acetylcholine which acts on cholinergic muscarinic receptors.
Correct Answer: Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X.
Explanation:The electron transfer system is responsible for most of the energy produced during respiration. The is a system of hydrogen carriers located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Hydrogen is transferred to the electron transfer system via the NADH2 molecules produced during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. As a result, a H+ion gradient is generated across the inner membrane which drives ATP synthase. The final hydrogen acceptor is oxygen and the H+ions and O2 combine to form water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A dermatological examination of a patient presenting with a lump shows a visible collection of fluid measuring 0.3 cm in diameter.
Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?Your Answer: Vesicle
Explanation:A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.
A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.
A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.
A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of osteomalacia:
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Features of osteomalacia include:
Bone pain (particularly bone, pelvis, ribs)
Neuromuscular dysfunction (particularly in the gluteal muscles, leading to waddling gait
Pseudofractures on x-ray (looser zones)
Elevated alkaline phosphatase, hypocalcaemia and low phosphate due to secondary hyperparathyroidism -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old man complains of pain and redness in his lower thigh due to an insect bite. He was diagnosed with cellulitis. Select the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis.
Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Cellulitis is most commonly caused by bacteria from the group Aß-hemolytic streptococcus.
Cellulitis can be caused by animal bites. For uncomplicated cellulitis, flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic. Because it is beta-lactamase stable, it is efficient against Staphylococcus aureus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She states that she has also felt very itchy, particularly after a hot bath and that she is often dizzy and sweaty. On examination she appears plethoric and you note the presence of splenomegaly. Her blood tests today show that her haemoglobin level is 16.9 g/dl.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera
Explanation:Polycythaemia vera (PCV), which is also referred to as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a clonal haematological malignancy in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. It may also result in the overproduction of white blood cells and platelets. It is most commonly seen in the elderly and the mean age at diagnosis is 65-74 years.
Patients can be completely asymptomatic and it is often discovered as an incidental finding on a routine blood count. Approximately 1/3 of patients present with symptoms due to thrombosis, of these 3/4 have arterial thrombosis and 1/4 venous thrombosis. Features include stroke, myocardial infarction, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
The other clinical features of PCV include:
Plethoric appearance
Lethargy and tiredness
Splenomegaly (common)
Pruritis (in 40% – particularly after exposure to hot water)
Headaches, dizziness and sweating (in 30%)
Gouty arthritis (in 20%)
Budd-Chiari syndrome (in 5-10%)
Erythromyalgia (in <5% – burning pain and red/blue discolouration of hands and feet)
Increased incidence of peptic ulcer disease (possibly related to increased histamine release from mast cells)
The diagnosis of PCV requires two major criteria and one minor criterion, or the first major criterion and two minor criteria:
Major criteria:
HB > 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dl in women
Elevated red cell mass > 25% above mean normal predicted value
Presence of JAK2 mutationMinor criteria:
Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with prominent erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic proliferation
Serum erythropoietin level below normal range
Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro
The main aim of treatment is to normalize the full blood count and prevent complications such as thrombosis. Venesection is the treatment of choice but hydroxyurea can also be used to help control thrombocytosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump?
Your Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump uses energy derived from ATP hydrolysis.
Correct Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump moves 3 Na + ions into the cell for every 2 K + ions out.
Explanation:In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. The Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is the constriction of efferent arterioles. Which of the following best describes the effect of angiotensin II- mediated constriction of efferent arterioles?
Your Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction, increased GFR
Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction, increased GFR
Explanation:The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) is a hormone system composed of renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone. Those hormones are essential for the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance.
Cases of hypotension, sympathetic stimulation, or hyponatremia can activate the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). The following process will then increase the blood volume and blood pressure as a response.
When renin is released it will convert the circulating angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. The ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme will then catalyst its conversion to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II can constrict the vascular smooth muscles and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus.
The efferent arteriole is a blood vessel that delivers blood away from the capillaries of the kidney. The angiotensin II-mediated constriction of efferent arterioles increases GFR, reduces renal blood flow and peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure, and increases peritubular colloid osmotic pressure, as a response to its action of increasing the filtration fraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following immunoglobulins is most important for mast cell degranulation:
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: IgE
Explanation:IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk).
IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion.
IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Identify the type of graph described below:
A graph that is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line.Your Answer: Histogram
Correct Answer: Scatterplot
Explanation:A scatterplot is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line. It gives a good visual picture of the relationship between the two variables, and aids the interpretation of the correlation coefficient or regression model. Each unit contributes one point to the scatterplot, on which points are plotted but not joined. The resulting pattern indicates the type and strength of the relationship between the two variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100 mg of hydrocortisone per day to control this.
What dose of prednisolone is equivalent to this dose of hydrocortisone? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: 50 mg
Correct Answer: 25 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 25 mg would be equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:
Corticosteroid
Potency relative to hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
4 times more potent
Triamcinolone
5 times more potent
Methylprednisolone
5 times more potent
Dexamethasone
25 times more potent -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?
Your Answer: Uterine contractions in labour are an example of negative feedback
Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors
Explanation:Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism.
Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors.
The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs.
The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system.
The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A young pregnant woman is in the late stages of her pregnancy. She is administered a drug that results in her newborn being born with respiratory depression. The baby also suffers from neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Out of the following, which drug is most likely responsible for the baby's condition?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are used as a first-line treatment in breaking seizures and in status epilepticus as they are rapid-acting.
Use of benzodiazepines in the late third-trimester or exposure during labour is associated with great risks to the foetus/neonate. Babies can exhibit either floppy infant syndrome, or marked neonatal withdrawal symptoms. Symptoms vary from mild sedation, hypotonia, and reluctance to suck, to apnoeic spells, cyanosis, and impaired metabolic responses to cold stress. These symptoms have been reported to persist for periods from hours to months after birth.
They also cross into breast milk and should be used with caution in breastfeeding mothers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.
Which of the following is NOT an action of the gluteus maximus muscle? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Hip lateral rotation
Correct Answer: Hip abduction
Explanation:Gluteus maximus is the main extensor muscle of the hip and assists with lateral rotation of the thigh at the hip joint. It also acts as a hip adductor, steadies the thigh, and assists in raising the trunk from a flexed position.
Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with mild dyspepsia seeks advice from her pharmacist on how to deal with her symptoms. In the first instance, the pharmacist advises her to take an over-the-counter antacid. She buys an antacid that contains aluminium hydroxide, which relieves her symptoms but has a negative side effect.
She's most likely to have developed which of the following side effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Aluminium hydroxide is a common antacid that is used to treat ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
When antacids containing aluminium salts are given to patients with renal impairment, there is a risk of accumulation and aluminium toxicity. If renal function is normal, aluminium accumulation does not appear to be a risk.
Because it reduces gastrointestinal phosphate absorption, aluminium hydroxide can also be used to treat hyperphosphatemia in patients with renal failure.
Magnesium-based antacids are generally laxative, whereas aluminium-based antacids can be constipating. Renal impairment, angioedema, and anaphylaxis are not significantly increased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities.
Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.
It has the following contraindications:
1. Closed-angle glaucoma
2. Gastrointestinal obstruction
3. Intestinal atony
4. Paralytic ileus
5. Toxic megacolon
6. Severe ulcerative colitis
7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction
8. Urinary retention
9. Myasthenia gravisUse cautiously in the following conditions:
1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)
2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)
3. Autonomic neuropathy
4. Hypertension
5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)
6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)
7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)
8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
9. Ulcerative colitis
10. Prostatic hyperplasia
11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Regarding Gaussian sample distribution, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be skewed left or right
Explanation:Gaussian distribution, also known as normal distribution, is the most important probability distribution in statistics because it fits many natural phenomena. The normal distribution is a probability function that describes how the values of a variable are distributed. Below are its characteristics:
(1) Bell-shaped and symmetrical about the mean
(2) The mean, median, mode are all equal
(3) The total area under the curve and above the x-axis is equal to 1
(4) It has long tapering tails extending infinitely but never touching the x-axis
(5) It is determined by its parameters: its mean and standard deviation
(6) The standard deviation becomes a more meaningful quality than merely being a measure of dispersionThe mean is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation, and is also known as the ‘average’.
The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers.
The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is commonly used in public health statistics, such as the top 10 causes of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Renal potassium excretion is promoted by all but which one of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased intracellular magnesium
Explanation:Aldosterone: A rise in [K+] in the extracellular fluid of the adrenal cortex directly stimulates aldosterone release. Aldosterone promotes the synthesis of Na+/K+ATPases and the insertion of more Na+/K+ATPases into the basolateral membrane, and also stimulates apical sodium and potassium channel activity, overall acting to increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion.
pH changes: Potassium secretion is reduced in acute acidosis and increased in acute alkalosis. A higher pH increases the apical K+channel activity and the basolateral Na+/K+ATPase activity – both changes that promote K+secretion.
Flow rates: Increased flow rates in the collecting duct reduce K+concentration in the lumen and therefore enhance K+secretion. Increased flow also activates BK potassium channels, and ENaC channels which promote potassium secretion and sodium reabsorption respectively.
Sodium delivery: Decreased Na+delivery to the collecting ducts results in less Na+reabsorption and hence a reduced gradient for K+secretion.
Magnesium: Intracellular magnesium can bind and block K+channels inhibiting K+secretion into the tubules. Therefore magnesium deficiency reduces this inhibitory effect and so allows more potassium to be secreted into tubules and can cause hypokalaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking and thigh adduction weakness at the hip joint.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The obturator nerve is a sensory and motor nerve that emerges from the lumbar plexus and innervates the thigh.
This nerve supplies motor innervation to the medial compartment of the thigh, making it necessary for thigh adduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of 3 weeks and longer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.
The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.
Gonorrhoea has a short incubation period of approximately 2 to 7 days.
The mumps virus can be isolated from infected saliva and swabs rubbed over the Stensen’s duct from 9 days before onset of symptoms until 8 days after parotitis appears.
Scarlet fever, which appears within 1 to 2 days after bacterial infection, is characterized by a diffuse red rash that appears on the upper chest and spreads to the trunk and extremities. The rash disappears over the next 5 to
7 days and is followed by desquamation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and upper neck. A CT scan of his neck was performed and the results were conclusive with Ludwig's angina.
Which of the following spaces is most likely affected based on the case presented?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Submandibular space
Explanation:Ludwig’s angina is life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck. It involves three compartments of the floor of the mouth: the sublingual, submental, and submandibular.
Ludwig’s angina usually originates as a dental infection of the second or third mandibular molars. The infection begins in the subgingival pocket and spreads to the musculature of the floor of the mouth. It progresses below the mylohyoid line, indicating that it has moved to the sublingual space. As the roots of the second and third mandibular molars lie below this line, infection of these teeth will predispose to Ludwig’s angina. The infection spreads lingually rather than buccally because the lingual aspect of the tooth socket is thinner. It initially spreads to the sublingual space and progresses to the submandibular space.
The disease is usually polymicrobial, involving oral flora, both aerobes, and anaerobes. The most common organisms are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available. In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lidocaine
Explanation:If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with the complaint of palpitations and difficulty breathing, which started suddenly half an hour ago. His ECG shows findings of supraventricular tachycardia. You attempt vagal manoeuvres but cannot convert them back to sinus rhythm. Therefore, drug therapy is necessary to terminate the arrhythmia. Adenosine cannot be used in this patient because of a contra-indication listed in his medical record.
Which one of the conditions listed below would be a contraindication in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Entonox is a mixture of 50% Oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide and is given in an inhaled form as a quick form of analgesia. Entonox causes non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, which are a subtype of the glutamate receptor.
It is stored in blue and white cylinders and administered via a pressure regulator and demand valve. The administration of this medicine reduces pain and anxiety in paediatric and dental procedures ands during labour.
Effects are apparent after 20 seconds, and peak action occurs after 3 to 5 minutes as it is a drug with a rapid onset and the patient will also recover rapidly from its effects. Entonox is widely used as it does not accumulate in the body and does not cause many side effects. However, a notable side effect is the inhibition of Vitamin B12 synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV
Explanation:HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
HIV is not a notifiable disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.
The stomach D-cells secrete which of the following substances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatostatin
Explanation:Somatostatin-producing cells present in the pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreatic islets are known as D-cells or delta-cells. Somatostatin inhibits gastric acid secretion by acting directly on acid-producing parietal cells in the stomach via a G-protein coupled receptor. By suppressing the release of other hormones such as gastrin, secretin, and histamine, somatostatin can indirectly reduce stomach acid output, slowing the digesting process.
The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretion
Parietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogen
Parietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption
Chief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestion
Chief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestion
G-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
Mucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acid
D-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding control of hospital acquired infection (HAI), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent.
Explanation:Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent. Cleaning is the removal of foreign material from areas or objects to a point at which they are visually free from debris.  Disinfection is the reduction in the number of infectious particles. Isopropyl alcohol is not effective against C. difficile spores. Autoclaving is a method of sterilisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Normal human immunoglobulin is mostly used to protect against which of the following infectious diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles and hepatitis A
Explanation:Immune globulin IM is indicated for prophylaxis following exposure
to hepatitis A, to prevent or modify measles (rubeola) in a
susceptible person exposed fewer than 6 days previously,
for susceptible household contacts of measles patients,
particularly contacts <1 year and pregnant women without
evidence of immunity, and to modify rubella in exposed pregnant
women who will not consider a therapeutic abortion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The correct statement about the glomerular filtration barrier is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The basement membrane is negatively charged, restricting filtration of negatively charged molecules.
Explanation:The main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight. Molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions are filtered freely, but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, and there is very little filtration for anything above this.
There is further restriction of negatively charged molecules because they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin, which has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, is filtered but only in very small amounts. All of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. Other than the ultrafiltrate being essentially protein free, it has an otherwise identical composition of plasma. Bowman’s capsule consists of:
– an epithelial lining which consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes
– endothelium which is perforated by pores or fenestrations – this allows plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.
Explanation:Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a clonal (malignant) bone marrow disorder in which early lymphoid precursors multiply and replace the marrow’s normal hematopoietic cells. ALL is most common between the ages of 3 and 7, with 75 percent of cases occurring before the age of 6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
