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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of...

    Correct

    • Regarding metal wires, which of the following is the most important determinant of their resistance?

      Your Answer: Resistivity

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now,...

    Incorrect

    • Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.

      A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.

      Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.

      Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.

      A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Reduced circulating volume

      Correct Answer: Reduced aortic compliance

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?

      Your Answer: Has an incidence of 2% of the population

      Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.

      A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.

      Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.

      The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.

      In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer: Ferrochelatase

      Correct Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the best associated option with Kaplan-Meier survival plot?

      Your Answer: An accurate prediction of decreasing survival with time after an event.

      Correct Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.

      Explanation:

      Also known as the “product limit estimate’’, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is used to estimate the true survival function from the collected data.

      Using this plot, probabilities of occurrence of an event at a certain point in time can be computed. The successive probabilities are multiplied by any earlier computed probabilities to get the final estimate. For a given population, the survival probability at any particular time on the plot = (number of subjects living at the start – number of subjects who died)/number of subjects living at the start.

      The description of a scatter plot is a graphical representation using Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables for data set. It is used for to assess the relationship between 2 different variables.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10%...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.

      Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?

      Your Answer: 800 kcal

      Correct Answer: 1300 kcal

      Explanation:

      1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.

      A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.

      1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.

      A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.

      1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.

      The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year old female comes to the GP's office with unexplained weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old female comes to the GP's office with unexplained weight gain, cold intolerance and fatigue. Her thyroid function tests are performed as there is a suspicion of hypothyroidism. A negative feedback mechanism is incorporated in the control of thyroid hormone release. All of choices below are also controlled by a negative feedback loop except:

      Your Answer: Cortisol release

      Correct Answer: Clotting cascade

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the clotting cascade, which occurs via a positive feedback mechanism. As clotting factors are attracted to a site, their presence attracts further clotting factors. This continues until a functioning clot is formed.

      This patient has presented with symptoms of hypothyroidism and symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, dry skin, coarse hair and constipation. It can be treated by replacing the missing thyroid hormone with levothyroxine which is a synthetic version of thyroxine (T4).

      Serum carbon dioxide (CO2) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism as well. Chemoreceptors can detect when the serum CO2 is high, and send an impulse to the respiratory centre of the brain to increase the respiratory rate. As a result, more CO2 is exhaled which lowers the serum concentration.

      Cortisol is also released according to a negative feedback mechanism. Cortisol acts on both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. Its action serve to decrease the formation of corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), respectively. CRH acts on the anterior pituitary to release ACTH. This then acts on the adrenal gland to cause the release of cortisol. Thus, inhibition of CRH and ACTH formation results in high levels of cortisol which inhibit its further release.

      Blood pressure (BP) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. Low BP results in renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activation. This leads to vasoconstriction and retention of salt and water which increased BP.
      Blood sugar is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. A rise in blood sugar causes insulin to be released. Insulin acts to transport glucose into the cell which lowers blood sugar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Correct

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.

      Hb-102 g/l
      WBC - 2.9* 109/l
      Platelets - 7 * 109/l

      Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?


      Your Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).

      At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.

      The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.

      CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.

      CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:

      Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
      Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l

      If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer: 65 ml/hr 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be...

    Correct

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.

      Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 µm
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

      What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Left vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol...

    Correct

    • Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?

      Your Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders....

    Incorrect

    • Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.

      Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
      CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.

      What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?

      Your Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.

      Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.

      The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.

      The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Involves infusing 200 ml of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose

      Explanation:

      In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

      With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

      By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

      The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

      The fluid regimen recommended is:
      500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
      500ml of 5% dextrose and
      500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.

      What is true regarding the mitral valve?

      Your Answer: The chordae tendinae anchor the valve directly to the wall of the left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

      The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.

      The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
      1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
      2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
      3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
      i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
      ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
      4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
      5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricle

      The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.

      Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
      1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
      2. ilioinguinal nerve
      3. spermatic cord (males only)
      4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)

      The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.

      The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
      Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
      Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
      Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canal

      The Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region.

      As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral vein

      Correct Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.

      The veins of choice for PICC are:
      1. Basilic
      2. Brachial
      3. Cephalic
      4. Medial cubital vein

      The vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.

      The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
      The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer: Escitalopram

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Is based on the principle of paramagnetism

      Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

      End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

      There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.

      If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?

      Your Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume will increase

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

      FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

      Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Resting potential restored by Na+/K+ ATPase

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.

      Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rise in lactate

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.

      What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?

      Your Answer: A Student's t test could be used

      Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.

      The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.

      Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.

      The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.

      Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter.

      His vital readings are:

      Temperature: 38.1°C
      Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg)
      Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg)
      Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg
      Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg
      Cardiac output: 5 L/min
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%

      Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance.

      Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/9) 44%
Physiology And Biochemistry (4/5) 80%
Physiology (4/5) 80%
Statistical Methods (1/3) 33%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
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