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  • Question 1 - A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response to his initial salbutamol nebuliser, you administer a further nebuliser that this time also contains ipratropium bromide.
      After what time period would you expect the maximum effect of the ipratropium bromide to occur? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 30 -60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.
      The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).

      Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.
      The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old boy presents to you with a history of fever. A rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to you with a history of fever. A rash began as small red dots on the face, scalp, torso, upper arms and legs shortly afterwards and has now progressed to small blisters and pustules. You make a diagnosis of chickenpox.

      The following complications of chickenpox is the LEAST likely.

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Bronchospasm

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox (varicella zoster) is a highly contagious airborne disease and has an incubation period of between 7-21 days. It often has a prodromal phase when there is a fever, aches and headaches, dry cough, and sore throat before onset of rash.

      Some recognized complications of chickenpox are:
      Orchitis
      Hepatitis
      Pneumonia
      Encephalitis
      Infected spots
      Otitis media
      Myocarditis
      Glomerulonephritis
      Appendicitis
      Pancreatitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide...

    Correct

    • You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide to contact the intensive care outreach team because she appears to be in septic shock. They decide to start a dobutamine infusion as soon as they arrive.

      Which of the following statements about dobutamine is correct?

      Your Answer: It may be infused via a peripheral line

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      It is infused intravenously after being diluted to a volume of at least 50 ml in a suitable crystalloid solution. The dose is titrated to response and ranges from 0.5 to 40 g/kg/min. Extravasation-induced skin necrosis is uncommon, and dobutamine can be administered through a peripheral line.

      At doses below 10 g/kg/min, side effects are rare, but at higher doses, they can include:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man showing symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man showing symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that he has a full, plethoric aspect to his face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine him. His blood pressure is 158/942 mmHg, and his glucose tolerance has lately been impaired. His potassium level is 3.2 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      Cushing’s syndrome has a wide range of clinical manifestations that are dependent on the degree of cortisol overproduction. The appearance might be vague and the diagnosis difficult to detect when cortisol levels are just somewhat elevated. On the other hand, in long-term cases of severely increased cortisol levels, the presentation might be colourful and the diagnosis simple.

      Cushing’s syndrome has the following clinical features:
      Obesity and weight growth in the true sense
      Supraclavicular fat pads are fat pads that are located above the clavicle.
      Buffalo hump
      Fullness and plethora of the face (‘moon facies’)
      Muscle atrophy and weakening at the proximal level
      Diabetes mellitus, also known as impaired glucose tolerance
      Hypertension
      Skin thinning and bruising
      Depression
      Hirsutism
      Acne
      Osteoporosis
      Amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea

      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater during the whole 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed. As a result, random cortisol testing is not an effective screening technique and is not advised.

      The following are the two most common first-line screening tests:
      Cortisol levels in the urine are measured every 24 hours.
      A diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome can be made if more than two collections measure cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal.
      Physical stress (e.g., excessive exercise, trauma), mental stress (e.g., sadness), alcohol or drug misuse, complex diabetes, and pregnancy can all cause false positives.
      Renal dysfunction, inadequate collection, and cyclical Cushing’s disease can all cause false negatives.
      The overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) involves giving 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11 p.m. and measuring blood cortisol levels at 8 a.m. the next day.
      Cushing’s syndrome is diagnosed when cortisol is not suppressed to less than 50 nmol/L.
      It might be difficult to tell the difference between mild Cushing’s disease and normal cortisol production.
      False positives can occur as a result of depression, severe systemic sickness, renal failure, prolonged alcohol misuse, old age, and the use of hepatic enzyme-inducing medicines, among other things.
      False negatives are extremely uncommon in Cushing’s disease patients.

      A characteristic biochemical picture might also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. The following are the primary characteristics:
      Hypokalaemia
      Alkalosis metabolique

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production, approximately how much is produced per day? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) production, approximately how much is produced per day?

      Your Answer: 500 ml

      Explanation:

      CSF fills the ventricular system, a series of interconnected spaces within the brain, and the subarachnoid space directly surrounding the brain. The intraventricular CSF reflects the composition of the brain’s extracellular space via free exchange across the ependyma, and the brain “floats” in the subarachnoid CSF to minimize the effect of external mechanical forces. The volume of CSF within the cerebral ventricles is approximately 30 mL, and that in the subarachnoid space is about 125 mL. Because about 0.35 mL of CSF is produced each minute, CSF is turned over more than three times daily. Approximately 500 mL of CSF is produced per day, at a rate of about 25 mL per hour.

      CSF is a filtrate of capillary blood formed largely by the choroid plexuses, which comprise pia mater, invaginating capillaries, and ependymal cells specialized for transport. The choroid plexuses are located in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. The lateral ventricles are situated within the two cerebral hemispheres. They each connect with the third ventricle through one of the interventricular foramina (of Monro). The third ventricle lies in the midline between the diencephalon on the two sides. The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) traverses the midbrain and connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle. The fourth ventricle is a space defined by the pons and medulla below and the cerebellum above. The central canal of the spinal cord continues caudally from the fourth ventricle, although in adult humans the canal is not fully patent and continues to close with age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration:

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive inspiration is produced by contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs). In inspiration, elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and depression of the diaphragm result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. This results in an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and thus air is drawn into the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an abducens nerve...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an abducens nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Inability to look up

      Explanation:

      CN VI palsies result in a convergent squint at rest (eye turned inwards) with inability to abduct the eye because of unopposed action of the rectus medialis. The patient complains of horizontal diplopia when looking towards the affected side. With complete paralysis, the eye cannot abduct past the midline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
      2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
      3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
      4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).

      Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.

      Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.

      In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.

      Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Action potentials are transmitted from myocyte to myocyte via which of the following:...

    Correct

    • Action potentials are transmitted from myocyte to myocyte via which of the following:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to adjacent myocytes via gap junctions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      111.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old girl that appears systemically well presents with a honey-crusted scab close...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl that appears systemically well presents with a honey-crusted scab close to the corner of her mouth and states that the area is slightly itchy but not painful. The diagnosis given was impetigo.

      What is most likely the mode of transmission of the causative agent of the said diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Direct contact

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a common pyoderma that is most often seen in children. Historically, most cases were caused by group A streptococci (GAS; Streptococcus pyogenes), although S. aureus has become the predominant pathogen over the last 15 years.

      A bullous form of impetigo accounts for approximately 10% of cases. It is caused by strains of S. aureus that produce exfoliative toxins leading to the formation of bullae, which quickly rupture and form a transparent, light brown crust.

      Impetigo is spread mainly by person-to-person contact; it is rapidly spread through direct transmission. The diagnosis of impetigo can be made from a Gram stain and culture of the vesicular contents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. You suspect he may have tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, and has not received a BCG vaccination. In which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?

      Your Answer: The patient is pregnant

      Correct Answer: The patient is asplenic

      Explanation:

      Persons with chronic diseases. Persons with chronic renal disease or undergoing dialysis, and those with hyposplenism or asplenia, may receive BCG vaccine if indicated.

      Only 2 absolute contraindications apply to all vaccines:

      • anaphylaxis following a previous dose of the relevant vaccine
      • anaphylaxis following any component of the relevant vaccine

      2 further contraindications apply to live vaccines (both parenteral and oral):

      • People who are significantly immunocompromised should not receive live vaccines. This is regardless of whether the immunocompromising condition is caused by disease or treatment.
      • Pregnant women should not receive live vaccines, in general. Women should be advised not to become pregnant within 28 days of receiving a live vaccine.

      Use of live vaccines in people who are immunocompromised:
      People who are immunocomprised are at risk of adverse events or vaccine-related disease if they receive a live vaccine.

      Live vaccines include:

      BCG (bacille Calmette–Guérin) vaccine
      oral cholera vaccine (Vaxchora)
      Some Japanese encephalitis virus vaccines
      MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine
      rotavirus vaccine
      oral typhoid vaccine
      varicella vaccine
      yellow fever vaccine
      zoster vaccine (Zostavax)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?

      Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Glucagon binds to class B G-protein coupled receptors and activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP intracellularly.

      This activates protein kinase A. Protein kinase A phosphorylates and activates important enzymes in target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding antihistamines, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding antihistamines, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects.

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients and children are more susceptible to side effects. Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor. The newer antihistamines e.g. cetirizine cause less sedation and psychomotor impairment than the older antihistamines because they are much less lipid soluble and penetrate the blood brain barrier only to a slight extent. Antihistamines are used as a second line adjunct to adrenaline in anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and...

    Correct

    • A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. There is most likely to be a deficiency in which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      A deficiency of aldosterone, as seen in adrenal insufficiency, can result in hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure, weakness, weight loss, and skin discoloration. An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test is scheduled as part of her treatment.

      Which of the following statements about ACTH is correct?

      Your Answer: It is released in response to the release of CRH

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland produces and secretes a peptide hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (adenohypophysis). It is secreted in response to the hypothalamus’s secretion of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).

      ACTH promotes cortisol secretion via binding to cell surface ACTH receptors in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.

      ACTH also promotes the production of beta-endorphin, which is a precursor to melanocyte-releasing hormone (MRH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year old man presents with abdominal pain and constipation, and bloods...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man presents with abdominal pain and constipation, and bloods show hypocalcaemia. Which of the following hormones is increased as a result of hypocalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone or parathyrin, is a peptide hormone that is secreted by the parathyroid glands, which lie immediately behind the thyroid gland. In particular, this hormone is made by chief cells. It regulates the serum calcium concentration through its effects on bone, kidney, and intestine. This hormone is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma Ca2+ concentration and it serves to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.
      PTH activates Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane and as a result, increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron. It inhibits reabsorption of phosphate and this increases its excretion by in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding the intervertebral disc, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the intervertebral disc, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: In L4 - L5 disc herniation, the L5 spinal nerve root is the most commonly affected.

      Explanation:

      A posterolateral herniation of the disc at the L4 – L5 level would be most likely to damage the fifth lumbar nerve root, not the fourth lumbar nerve root, due to more oblique descending of the fifth lumbar nerve root within the subarachnoid space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      182.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:...

    Correct

    • Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Blind treatment of suspected bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) are indicated first line in:
      – Blind treatment of meningitis in patients > 3 months (with amoxicillin if patient > 50 years)
      – Meningitis caused by meningococci
      – Meningitis caused by pneumococci
      – Meningitis caused by H. influenzae
      – Severe or invasive salmonellosis
      – Typhoid fever
      – Gonorrhoea
      – Gonococcal arthritis
      – Haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old patient experiences a spontaneous rupture of his Achilles tendon following a course of antibiotics

      Which of the antibiotics listed below is MOST likely to be the cause? 

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Tendinopathy and spontaneous tendon rupture are caused by fluoroquinolones, which are an uncommon but well-known cause. Tendon problems caused by fluoroquinolones are expected to affect 15 to 20 people per 100,000. Patients over the age of 60 are most likely to develop them.

      It usually affects the Achilles tendon, but it has also been described in cases involving the quadriceps, peroneus brevis, extensor pollicis longus, long head of biceps brachii, and rotator cuff tendons. The exact aetiology is uncertain, although the fluoroquinolone medication is thought to obstruct collagen activity and/or cut off blood supply to the tendon.

      Other factors linked to tendon rupture spontaneously include:
      Gout
      Treatment with corticosteroids
      Hypercholesterolaemia
      Long-term dialysis
      Kidney transplant
      Rheumatoid arthritis 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A suicidal patient had lacerated his wrist, which resulted in an ulnar nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A suicidal patient had lacerated his wrist, which resulted in an ulnar nerve injury. Which of the following will confirm the presence of an ulnar nerve injury?

      Your Answer: Loss of flexion of the index and ring fingers

      Correct Answer: Claw hand appearance

      Explanation:

      An ulnar injury may result in abnormal sensations in the little finger and ring finger, usually on the palm side, weakness, and loss of coordination of the fingers.

      A claw like deformity of the hand and wrist is present. Pain, numbness, decreased sensation, tingling, or burning sensation in the areas controlled by the nerve are also possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      64.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (5/6) 83%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (3/3) 100%
Physiology (6/6) 100%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Infections (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Passmed