-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills.
Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
orethindrone daily. Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days. Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications. Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then. Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently.
On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable.
Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?Your Answer: Recommend switching from combined OCPs to a copper intrauterine device
Correct Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.
Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations. Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.
Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.
As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.
Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.
Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients. Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?
Your Answer: GnRH analogues
Correct Answer: Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
Explanation:Clomiphene is a non-steroidal compound with tissue selective actions. It is used to induce ovulation in women who wish to become pregnant. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoagulable state. Which of the following clotting factors reduces during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Factor II
Correct Answer: Factor XI
Explanation:Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, which means that risk of thromboembolism is increased. The main reason is an increase in clotting factors II, factor VII, fibrinogen, factor X and factor XII, whereas factors XI and factor XIII are reduced. Naturally occurring anticoagulants i.e. protein C and protein S are both decreased thus increasing the risk of thrombus formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.
Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.
Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?Your Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.
Explanation:In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.
If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.
Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.
It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?
Your Answer: 50ml
Correct Answer: 150ml
Explanation:The normal functional bladder capacity is around 400-600ml. First urge to void is typically felt when the bladder is approximately 150ml full.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Regarding monozygotic twins, all of the following are correct, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Is not affected by heredity
Correct Answer: Has a constant incidence 1:600 births
Explanation:The incidence of monozygotic twins is constant worldwide (approximately 4 per 1000 births). Approximately two thirds of twins are dizygotic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.
What would you advice her?Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.
The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).
Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate?
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:Passive immunity to the neonate is provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) since it can be transferred through the placenta from mother to the foetus.
IgA is transferred from mothers to offspring through breast milk.
IgM molecular structure is too big to be filtered through the placental vasculature to the foetus. IgM is the first Ig to be synthesised by the neonate -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?
Your Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?
Your Answer: 18-24 weeks
Correct Answer: 6-12 weeks
Explanation:Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.
– Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
– Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
– Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Clauser’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem
Explanation:Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer: Defective tooth enamel
Correct Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most common enzyme deficiency?
Your Answer: 17b-hydroxylase
Correct Answer: 21-hydroxylase
Explanation:Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia leads to the virilization of the foetus. It occurs due to an enzyme deficiency in the corticosteroid production pathway i.e. 21-hydroxylase which converts progesterone to deoxycorticosterone. The reduced levels of corticosteroids results in the negative feedback loop that leads to adrenal hyperplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Vaginal spotting is likely within three days of the treatment being given.
Correct Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.
Explanation:Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur?
Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes after ovulation. The zygote moves through the fallopian tube and implants in the endometrium about 7-9 days after fertilisation, or 6-12 days after ovulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)