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  • Question 1 - Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound to red blood cell antigens in vivo?

      Your Answer: Indirect Coombs

      Correct Answer: Direct Coombs

      Explanation:

      When the red cells are coated with immune IgG antibody, the cells do not agglutinate but when anti-IgG antiserum is added to these sensitized cells visible agglutination occurs. This is known as a positive direct coombs test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to questions on venous drainage the ovarian vein is likely to be a common question given its varied drainage depending on laterality. The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has lost almost 1 litre of blood. You suspect uterine atony as the likely cause, and have bimanually compressed the uterus. Which of the following pharmacological interventions should follow?

      Your Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      In the management of postpartum haemorrhage, it is essential that the bleeding is first mechanically prevented, followed by the administration of oxytocic drugs, which cause the uterine smooth muscle to contract and clamping off bleeding sites in the endometrium. The drug of choice in the treatment protocol of PPH is 5 units of syntocin, a synthetic oxytocin uterotonic, by slow intravenous infusion. This is particularly suitable in the case of uterine atony. Other uterotonics, misoprostol, carboprost, ergometrine, can be used, but are not as effective in an emergency setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation.

      On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of uterus

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
      Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
      Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.

      In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
      The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
      It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
      Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
      Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      98.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which cell type of the testis secrete inhibin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell type of the testis secrete inhibin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertoli cells

      Explanation:

      Summary points of the two key testicular cell types:
      1. Sertoli Cells = Secrete Inhibin. Forms blood-testis barrier. Have FSH receptors
      2. Leydig Cells = Secrete testosterone. Have LH receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The posterior scrotal artery is a branch of which artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior scrotal artery is a branch of which artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The posterior scrotal artery is a terminal branch of the perineal artery which is a branch of the internal pudendal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.

      On examination, she is conscious and pale.
      Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
      Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
      Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.

      Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

      Explanation:

      Expectant management has been reported with unpredictable success rate ranging from 25–76%. Waiting for spontaneous expulsion of the products of conception would waste much time, during which women may suffer uncertainty and anxiety. However, when additional surgical evacuation is needed owing to failure, they may suffer from an emotional breakdown. It is thus not recommended for missed early miscarriage due to the risks of emergency surgical treatment and blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Commonest cause of precocious puberty is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Commonest cause of precocious puberty is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty can be defined as secondary sexual characteristics that occur before the age of 8 years in females and 9 years in males. In 80-90% of individuals it is idiopathic. Other causes include CNS anomalies and tumours, increased exposure to sex hormones/steroids, pituitary gonadotrophin secreting tumours and ovarian tumours etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.

      How will you manage this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
      She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.

      The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
      1. More refractory vomiting.
      2. Failure to improve.
      3. Recurrent hospital admissions.

      Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The vaginal artery is the homolog to the inferior vesical artery in males. In most of the cases it arises from the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

      She has a three year old child who was fathered by the same partner. This first child was conceived spontaneously and delivered normally following a short labour.

      Her medical history includes irregular menstrual cycles, with periods occurring every three to four months.

      A pelvic ultrasound reveals 15-20 small cysts (4- 6 mm in diameter) in each ovary.

      Semen analysis, of her partner, shows a sperm count of ten million per mL, with 50% motility and 30% abnormal forms.

      Which one of the following is the best next step to treat her infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with metformin.

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis of polycystic ovaries (PCO) is confirmed by the ultrasound. Therefore, the best next step to treat this woman’s infertility is to start treatment with metformin (correct answer). Patients with polycystic ovaries, frequently develop insulin resistance and metformin has been shown to be beneficial in this situation. Metformin treatment corrects any metabolic abnormalities and decreases insulin resistance resulting in a return of normal ovulatory menstrual cycles and a rapid improvement in fertility.

      Additional treatment with clomiphene citrate may be required in some patients but gonadotrophin therapy is no longer commonly used.

      Clomiphene citrate could also have been recommended as a possible next treatment option since the available data indicate that both clomiphene and metformin are equally effective.

      Laparoscopic ovarian drilling has been used previously to treat polycystic ovaries; however, it is only used nowadays when all other treatment methods have been ineffective.

      Similarly, gonadotrophin therapy or in vitro fertilisation would not be the best next step to treat the infertility and they are used when other treatment options have not provided the required results.

      Even though changes in the semen analysis have been noted since the first pregnancy was achieved, these are not likely to be the cause of the secondary infertility, particularly because the current semen analysis is not significantly abnormal. Therefore, it is unlikely that donor insemination would be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery

      Explanation:

      Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
      Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
      Pregnancy
      Hyperthyroidism
      Liver cirrhosis
      Anorexia nervosa
      Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle circular smooth muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The urinary bladder is composed of the transitional epithelium, followed by the lamina propria made up of the fibroelastic connective tissue. The muscularis layer covers the lamina propria which is made up of three poorly defined layers of smooth muscles; the inner longitudinal, middle circular and the outer longitudinal layer. The bladder is covered on the superior surface and the lateral surface by the peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment.

      Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What type of virus is the Rubella virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of virus is the Rubella virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single stranded RNA (ssRNA)

      Explanation:

      Rubella virus is the only member of the genus Rubivirus and is a type of Togavirus (Togaviridae). It is a single stranded RNA virus. Note for the exam if you are unsure – most RNA viruses encountered in clinical practice are single stranded. The exception is rotavirus which is dsRNA virus. RNA viruses that use DNA during their replication are classed as retroviruses (HIV is an example)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The uterine vein drains where? ...

    Incorrect

    • The uterine vein drains where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Explanation:

      The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.

      Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed