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  • Question 1 - Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding bias, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair.

      Explanation:

      Bias is the term used to describe an error at any stage of the study that was not due to chance. Bias leads to the systematic difference between the results from a study and the true states of affair. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association or mask a real association.Good research design can reduce the effect of bias (e.g. blinding, randomisation) but they cannot eliminate it completely. Increasing the sample size does not reduce bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Study Methodology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed...

    Correct

    • Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed with psittacosis based on his symptoms and history of being a pigeon enthusiast. Which of the following is the causative bacteria of psittacosis?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia psittaci is a microorganism that is commonly found in birds.

      These bacteria can infect people and cause psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infectious disease that may cause high fever and pneumonia associated with headaches, altered mental state, and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
      collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.

      Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.

      Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
      in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
      season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.

      Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.

      G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    A graph that consists of a vertical...

    Correct

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      A graph that consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      Your Answer: Pareto diagram

      Explanation:

      A pareto diagram, or pareto chart, consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      A point-to-point graph, which shows the cumulative relative frequency, may be superimposed on the bar.

      Because the values of the statistical variables are placed in order of relative frequency, the graph clearly reveals which factors have the greatest impact and where attention is likely to yield the greatest benefit. It is extremely useful for analysing what problems need attention first, because the taller bars on the chart clearly illustrate which variable have the greatest cumulative effect on a given system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Colonic mass movement occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Colonic mass movement describes the intense contraction that begins halfway along the transverse colon and pushes the intestinal contents in the proximal colon towards the rectum. It occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum as part of the gastrocolic reflex and if faeces is present in the rectum, stimulates the urge to defecate. Distention of the rectum causes firing of afferent cholinergic parasympathetic fibres. The internal sphincter is made up of circular smooth muscle innervated by the autonomic fibres, and the more distal external sphincter is composed of striated muscle innervated by motor fibres from the pudendal nerve. During defaecation, relaxation of pelvic muscles straightens the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing...

    Correct

    • A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and facial numbness. Upon further investigation, an acoustic neuroma is given as the final diagnosis.

      Which of the following nerves is least likely to be affected in acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma is also called vestibular schwannoma (VS), acoustic neuroma, vestibular neuroma or acoustic neurofibroma. These are tumours that evolve from the Schwann cell sheath and can be either intracranial or extra-axial. They usually occur adjacent to the cochlear and vestibular nerves and most often arise from the inferior division of the latter. Anatomically, acoustic neuroma tends to occupy the cerebellopontine angle. About 5-10% of cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumours are meningiomas and may occur elsewhere in the brain. Bilateral acoustic neuromas tend to be exclusively found in individuals with type 2 neurofibromatosis.

      The following nerves may be affected due to nerve compression:

      Facial nerve: usually minimal with late presentation except for very large tumours. Depending on the degree of engagement of the nerve, the symptoms may include twitching, increased lacrimation and facial weakness.

      Trigeminal Nerve: paraesthesia in the trigeminal distribution, tingling of the tongue, impairment of the corneal reflex, and less commonly pain which may mimic typical trigeminal neuralgia.

      Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves: palatal paresis, hoarseness of voice and dysphagia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26 year old male presents to emergency room with a 2 day...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male presents to emergency room with a 2 day history of burning pain when passing urine, accompanied by a green urethral discharge. Gonorrhoea is suspected. The first line antibiotic for this condition is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      When there is a high suspicion of gonorrhoea from clinical features, empiric treatment should be commenced whilst waiting for laboratory confirmation.
      The first line treatment for uncomplicated anogenital and pharyngeal disease includes ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (single dose) + azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose. This covers concomitant chlamydia infection. For all people who have been treated for gonorrhoea, a test of cure is recommended

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which nerve innervates the brachioradialis muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerve innervates the brachioradialis muscle?

      Your Answer: The radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT...

    Correct

    • A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT and was scheduled for an ultrasound after the weekend, arrives at the emergency department with significant hematemesis. Which of the following medications can be used as a heparin reversal agent:

      Your Answer: Protamine sulfate

      Explanation:

      The management of bleeding in a patient receiving heparin depends upon the location and severity of bleeding, the underlying thromboembolic risk, and the current aPTT (for heparin) or anti-factor Xa activity (for LMW heparin). As an example, a patient with minor skin bleeding in the setting of a mechanical heart valve (high thromboembolic risk) and a therapeutic aPTT may continue heparin therapy, whereas a patient with major intracerebral bleeding in the setting of venous thromboembolism several months prior who is receiving heparin bridging perioperatively may require immediate heparin discontinuation and reversal with protamine sulphate. If haemorrhage occurs it is usually sufficient to withdraw unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin, but if rapid reversal of the effects of the heparin is required, protamine sulphate is a specific antidote (but only partially reverses the effects of low molecular weight heparins). Clinician judgment and early involvement of the appropriate consulting specialists is advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding cytotoxic T cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cytotoxic T cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They kill target cells by inducing cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T-cells (Cytotoxic T cells)
      Recognise antigen only in association with HLA Class I molecules (found on all nucleated cells; present endogenous antigens such as those found in cells infected by viruses or intracellular bacteria.)
      Comprise about 25% of peripheral T-cells
      Responsible for cytotoxic killing of target cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Evidence Based Medicine (2/2) 100%
Study Methodology (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
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