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  • Question 1 - Which of the following serology results is consistent with chronic hepatitis B infection:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following serology results is consistent with chronic hepatitis B infection:

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgG positive

      Explanation:

      Disease state vs Serology
      Acute hepatitis: BHBsAg, HBeAg, anti-HBc IgM
      Chronic hepatitis B (low infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG
      Chronic hepatitis B (high infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), HBeAg, anti-HBc IgG
      Cleared infection: Anti-HBs, anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG
      Vaccinated: Anti-HBs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A diagnosis of acute hepatitis B is suspected.
      Which of the following blood results is most suggestive of an acute hepatitis B infection? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following does NOT increase free ionised calcium levels: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does NOT increase free ionised calcium levels:

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Calcium homeostasis is primarily controlled by three hormones: parathyroid hormone, activated vitamin D and calcitonin.

      Parathyroid hormone acts on the kidneys to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane (and to decrease phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule).

      Activated vitamin D acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump (and to increase phosphate reabsorption).

      Calcitonin acts to inhibit renal reabsorption of calcium (and phosphate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a lesion to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a lesion to the vestibulocochlear nerve:

      Your Answer: Impaired hearing

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Hyperacusis is increased acuity of hearing with hypersensitivity to low tones resulting from paralysis of the stapedius muscle, innervated by the facial nerve. General sensation to the face and to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by the divisions of the trigeminal nerve (although taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the facial nerve). Eye movements are mediated by the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerve. Ptosis results from paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris, innervated by the oculomotor nerve, or the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the sympathetic chain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of iliopsoas syndrome is made.
      Iliacus is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Iliacus is innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by directly degrading the fibrin mesh and so breaking up thrombi.

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by activating plasminogen to form plasmin, which degrades fibrin and so breaks up thrombi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is administered that resolves the chest pain rapidly.

      Which ONE of the following is released on the initial metabolism of GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrite ions

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      The nitrate drugs are metabolized in the following steps:
      1. Release Nitrite ions (NO2-), which are then converted to nitric oxide (NO) within cells.
      2. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle cells.
      3. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.

      Although nitrates are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit in the management of angina results from a predominant mechanism of venous dilation:
      – Bigger veins hold more blood
      – Takes blood away from the left ventricle
      – Lowers LVEDV (preload), LA pressure
      – Less pulmonary oedema → improved dyspnoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pustule

      Explanation:

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in a chemo patient with significant neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy that is too aggressive weakens your immune system, putting you at risk for a fungal and many other infection.

      Neutropenia is a condition in which a person’s neutrophil count is abnormally low. Neutrophils are an infection-fighting type of white blood cell. Neutrophils fight infection by killing bacteria and fungi (yeast) that infiltrate the body.

      Fungal organisms are significant pathogens in the setting of neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Passmed