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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.

      On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.

      Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.

      Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.

      Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
      1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
      a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
      b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
      2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
      BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
      3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
      BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
      4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
      Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
      5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
      Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.

      To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
      – Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
      reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
      – Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
      – Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
      – Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
      – Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she is planning to conceive over past three months with no success.
      She has a history of obesity with BMI 40 and type 2 diabetes mellitus with latest HbA1c value of 11%. She had her last eye check six months ago which shows no evidence of retinopathy, and she does not have diabetic nephropathy.

      Among the following which is a contraindication to pregnancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of type 2 diabetes mellitus with HBA1C above 10

      Explanation:

      In patients who have an HbA1C value above 10%, it is better to postpone pregnancy until diabetes is under control. Also in those patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are suffering from severe gastroparesis, those with advanced retinopathy, with severe diabetic renal disease and severe ischemic heart disease with uncontrolled hypertension pregnancy is contraindicated.

      All the other options mentioned are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The uterine and vaginal arteries branch from the internal iliac artery. The ovarian artery branches direct from the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
      The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
      In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament is a remnant of the gubernaculum in females. In males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Chorioamnionitis is a complication of pregnancy caused by bacterial infection of the fetal amnion and chorion membranes. Group B Streptococcus is associated with chorioamnionitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle circular smooth muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The urinary bladder is composed of the transitional epithelium, followed by the lamina propria made up of the fibroelastic connective tissue. The muscularis layer covers the lamina propria which is made up of three poorly defined layers of smooth muscles; the inner longitudinal, middle circular and the outer longitudinal layer. The bladder is covered on the superior surface and the lateral surface by the peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal prolapse. Upon examination, the vagina is 1.5 cm below the vaginal plane. What grade is the prolapse according to the POP-Q classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Pelvic organ prolapse is a common condition amongst ageing women where a weakness in the pelvic support structures of the pelvic floor allows pelvic viscera to descend.
      The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification system (POP-Q) is useful for describing and staging the severity of the pelvic organ prolapse.
      Grade 1: the most distal portion of the prolapse is more than 1 cm above the level of the hymen
      Grade 2: the most distal portion of the prolapse is 1 cm or less proximal or distal to the hymenal plane
      Grade 3: the most distal portion of the prolapse protrudes more than 1 cm below the hymen but protrudes no farther than 2 cm less than the total vaginal length (for example, not all of the vagina has prolapsed)
      Grade 4: vaginal eversion complete

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      FEV1 and FVC are unchanged. FEV1/FVC ratio remains the same in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of...

    Incorrect

    • If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of the menstrual cycle and examined under the microscope, what kind of findings would be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fern pattern characteristic of oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Fern test looks for a specific fern like pattern of cervical mucus when observed under light microscope after the sample is dried. It occurs due to the presence of sodium chloride under oestrogen influence whereas progesterone opposes it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.

      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).

      Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva.

      She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins.

      She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies.

      What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical ligation and stripping of the affected veins.

      Explanation:

      The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.

      In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.

      Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.

      Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,

      Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.

      Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus

      Explanation:

      Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
      – Age above 35 years.
      – Smoking.
      – High intake of caffeine.
      – Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
      – Viral infections.
      – Thrombophilia.
      – Chromosomal abnormalities.
      Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
      The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There is heavy growth of N. gonorrhoea as shown on swabs taken. Which treatment course is most advisable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone 1 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract. The bacteria is sexually transmitted and can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. According to the BASHH guidelines (British Association for Sexual Health and HIV), indication for therapy include confirmation of intracellular diplococci on microscopy or a confirmed positive NAAT. Treatment of gonorrhoea in pregnancy is as follows: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose. Pregnant individuals are not to be treated with quinolones or tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The median umbilical ligament is the remnant of the Urachus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Incorrect

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.

      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.

      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG

      Explanation:

      Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.

      Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.

      Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormones that increase during pregnancy and their roles:

      1. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG): Peaks between the eighth to tenth weeks of gestation and supports the corpus luteum to maintain progesterone production.
      2. Progesterone: Initially produced by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta, it rises steadily throughout pregnancy, suppressing the maternal immune response to fetal antigens and preparing the endometrium for implantation.
      3. Estrogen: Produced by the placenta from fetal and maternal precursors, estrogen levels increase to promote uterine growth and blood flow.
      4. Human Placental Lactogen (hPL): Rises significantly during pregnancy, influencing maternal metabolism by increasing insulin resistance and promoting lipolysis.
      5. Relaxin: Increases early in pregnancy to relax the uterine muscles, inhibit contractions, and prepare the cervix and pelvis for childbirth.
      6. Prolactin: Levels increase to prepare the breasts for lactation.
      7. Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH): Increases towards the end of pregnancy and is involved in the timing of labor.
      8. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH): Levels increase, contributing to elevated cortisol levels during pregnancy.
      9. Total Thyroxine (T4): Levels increase due to elevated thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) production stimulated by increased estrogen levels, meeting the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy.
      10. Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Levels increase to regulate calcium metabolism, ensuring adequate calcium for fetal bone development.
      11. Cortisol: Levels increase due to higher production by the adrenal glands and increased binding to cortisol-binding globulin (CBG), supporting glucose metabolism, managing stress, and aiding fetal development, particularly lung maturation.

      During pregnancy, some hormones either remain stable or do not increase significantly. These include:

      1. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH): Levels decrease due to the negative feedback from high levels of estrogen and progesterone.
      2. Luteinizing Hormone (LH): Levels also decrease due to negative feedback from elevated estrogen and progesterone.
      3. Growth Hormone (GH): Although a variant of growth hormone (hGH-V) is produced by the placenta and increases, the maternal pituitary GH levels may not significantly increase.
      4. Melatonin: Generally remains stable during pregnancy, though some studies suggest there may be slight fluctuations.
      5. Insulin: While insulin resistance increases due to hPL and other factors, the actual levels of insulin may not increase proportionally; instead, pancreatic beta-cell function adapts to meet the increased demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
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