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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?
Your Answer: A pituitary disorder
Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder
Explanation:Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?
Your Answer: Androgen excess
Explanation:Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned
Explanation:Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH
Explanation:While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age
Explanation:A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Tall stature is NOT a characteristic finding in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laurence-Moon Syndrome
Explanation:A height that is above the 97th percentile for age and sex is described as a tall stature. The most common cause of tall stature is constitutional or familial, followed by nutritional causes. Hormonal causes of tall stature include hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and precocious puberty. Some important chromosomal and syndromic causes of tall stature are Klinefelter’s syndrome, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome, Sotos syndrome, Beckwith-Weidman syndrome, and Weaver syndrome. Laurence-Moon syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by short stature, retinitis pigmentosa, and spastic paraplegia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical psychologist
Explanation:The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast-bud development
Explanation:The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with vomiting. For the past 6 months she has been experiencing weight loss, poor appetite and lethargy. When the physician inquires about the possibility of these symptoms' beings self-induced, both the patient and her family deny. Lab reports show sodium 125 mmol/l, potassium 5.5 mmol/l, urea 7.9 mmol/l and creatinine 67 µmol/l. A blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 12.4 mmol/l. Which of the following is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Addison disease is adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. It affects glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The onset of disease usually occurs when 90% or more of both adrenal cortices are dysfunctional. The most common symptoms are fatigue, muscle weakness, loss of appetite, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Adrenal insufficiency can be caused by autoimmune disease or suddenly stopping steroid medicines used to treat other conditions, among other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future
Explanation:The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen
Explanation:In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH| also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Girl's growth plates close around age 13 to 15 years
Explanation:Bone age is a valuable tool for determining the skeletal maturation in children. An X-ray of the left hand and wrist or knee is used to calculate bone age, which is then compared with the chronological age of the subject to know if the bone age is advanced or delayed. Certain standardized methods are used to score skeletal maturity, the most common methods are the Tanner-Whitehouse (TW) and Greulich-Pyle (GP) methods. The growth plate comprises a resting zone, a proliferative zone, hypertrophic cartilage zone, calcified cartilage zone, and then the ossification zone. This is the zonal distribution from the epiphysis to the diaphysis. After the closure of growth plates, spinal growth still occurs to some extent, adding up to the final height. The growth plates in boys close at around 17 to 19 years of age, while in girls, they close at around 13 to 15 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed
Explanation:Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern
Explanation:Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Association with HLA-DR3
Explanation:Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2
Explanation:Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast development
Explanation:The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has a known history of asthma and type 1 diabetes.His arterial blood gas analysis reveals:pH: 7.05pO2: 8 kPapCO2: 8 kPaBase excess: -12 mmol/LHCO3-: 15 mmol/LWhich of the following interpretations is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Explanation:In this case scenario, the pH is too low to be fully explained by a respiratory acidosis. Usually, if there is a metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system will try to compensate by hyperventilation and reduced pCO2. In this case, however, the pCO2 is raised suggesting the presence of a respiratory component.Therefore, this boy has mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, most probably due to severe exacerbation of this asthma, which led to diabetic ketoacidosis.Note:Normal values:pH: 7.35 – 7.45pO2: 10 – 14 kPapCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPaBase excess (BE): -2 – 2 mmol/LHCO3: 22 – 26 mmol/L
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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