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Question 1
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a history of trauma to her right breast 2 weeks ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:Fat necrosis may occur following a traumatic injury to the breast. The lump is usually firm, round, and painless.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: Blood volume increases by approximately 10-15%
Correct Answer: Blood volume slowly increases by 40-50%
Explanation:Maternal blood volume expands during pregnancy to allow adequate perfusion of vital organs, including the placenta and foetus, and to anticipate blood loss associated with delivery. The rapid expansion of blood volume begins at 6–8 weeks gestation and plateaus at 32–34 weeks gestation. While there is some increase in intracellular water, the most marked expansion occurs in extracellular fluid volume, especially circulating plasma volume. This expanded extracellular fluid volume accounts for between 8 and 10 kg of the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy. Overall, total body water increases from 6.5 to 8.5 L by the end of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Stages of labour
Your Answer: Syntometrine is a combination of oxytocin and Ergometrine which is used in the treatment of secondary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)
Correct Answer: The third stage ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes
Explanation:First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour in a British journal was having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.
Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.
Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three days, she has been suffering from dyspareunia and difficulty walking. She claims she has never had any sexually transmitted illnesses before. Her companion has no symptoms. She is afebrile and in good health.
On pelvic examination, a red, heated swelling measuring 4cm in diameter is discovered in the posterior end of the right labia majora. A speculum examination reveals normal-looking mucosa with no obvious discharge. There is no lymphadenopathy in the region.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?Your Answer: Marsupialization
Correct Answer: Word catheter
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Bartholin cyst abscess.
Insertion of an inflatable balloon is a non-surgical procedure that can be performed as an outpatient using a local anaesthetic (LA) injection to numb the area. It involves making a passage from the cyst or abscess through which the pus can drain over 4 weeks. After the LA injection, a small skin cut is made into the cyst or abscess, which allows drainage. A fluid/ pus swab sample may be taken to check for an infection at this stage. A cotton bud is used to break the pockets of abscess/ cyst fluid. A flexible tube (called a Word catheter) with a small, specially designed balloon at its tip is then inserted into the cyst or abscess to create a passage. The balloon is inflated with 3–4mls of sterile fluid to keep the catheter in place. Rarely, a stitch may be used to partly close the cut and hold the balloon in position. It is then left in place for up to 4 weeks; new skin to forms around the passage and the wound heals.Marsupialization can be done for drainage but is inferior or word catheter because of the technical challenges and complications. Hot compressions and analgesics alone do not suffice in the presence of an abscess. Antibiotics are given after drainage but are not effective alone when there is a large collection of pus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42 year old smoker attends clinic due to vulval soreness and shows you a number of vulval lumps. Biopsy is taken and reported as showing
Your Answer: Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)
Explanation:This is VIN. Smoking is a risk factor. It is also more common in immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug metabolism in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Progesterone effect on gastric motility
Explanation:Progesterone down regulates gastric motility meaning drugs are absorbed and metabolised more slowly, thus drugs are absorbed, metabolised and cleared more slowly. Most of the drugs are transported after binding to the albumin.
Lower albumin levels mean a greater unbound drug fraction but as this may be thought to increase drug concentrations it actually leaves more available for hepatic clearance or renal excretion so overall drug concentrations are unchanged and metabolism increased.
Increase in hepatic flow will increase the metabolism of the drug as the drug will be transported faster.
Increased renal blood flow will result in the faster clearance of the drug from the body. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Correct Answer: Flumazenil
Explanation:Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition?
Your Answer: 4-6 weeks
Explanation:In the period immediately after the delivery of the placenta, known as the puerperium, the female reproductive system begins to undergo some physiological changes to return to a non-pregnant state. One of these changes is uterine involution. The myometrium contracts, constricting blood vessels which impedes blood flow. It is thought that the uterine tissues then undergo apoptosis and autophagy. It takes about 4-6 weeks for the uterus to decrease is size from about 1 kg to 60 grams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Correct
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A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.
Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
Fundal height measures only 25 cm
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction
Explanation:A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.
A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
– Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
– A multiple pregnancy
– A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
– Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
– Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus Aureus
Correct Answer: Escherichia Coli
Explanation:The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?
Your Answer: pH 6.9 is considered to be normal
Correct Answer: Can be measured during labour
Explanation:A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva.
She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins.
She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies.
What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical ligation and stripping of the affected veins.
Explanation:The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.
In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.
Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.
Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,
Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.
Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cord entrapment
Explanation:Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows Psammoma bodies. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serous
Explanation:Serous tumours of the ovaries are large, cystic and spherical to ovoid in shape. They can be benign or malignant. Malignant tumours are usually nodular with irregularities in the surface where the tumour penetrates into the serosa. Psammoma bodies are a histological identification for these tumours which appear in the tips of the papillae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.
Explanation:It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.
In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old primigravida who is at 41 weeks has been pushing for the past 2 and a half ours. The fetal head is at the introitus and is beginning to crown already. An episiotomy was seen to be necessary. The tear was observed to extend through the sphincter of the rectum but her rectal mucosa remains intact.
Which of the following is the most appropriate type of episiotomy to be performed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Third-degree
Explanation:The episiotomy is a technique originally designed to reduce the incidence of severe perineal tears (third and fourth-degree) during labour. The general idea is to make a controlled incision in the perineum, for enlargement of the vaginal orifice, to facilitate difficult deliveries.
Below is the classification scale for the definitions of vaginal tears:
First degree involves the vaginal mucosa and perineal skin with no underlying tissue involvement.
Second degree includes underlying subcutaneous tissue and perineal muscles.
Third degree is where the anal sphincter musculature is involved in the tear. The third-degree tear can be further broken down based on the total area of anal sphincter involvement.
Fourth degree is where the tear extends through the rectal muscle into rectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.
– Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
– Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
– Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.
Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation
Explanation:Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lie
Explanation:Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.
Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.
Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.
Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasma Gondii
Explanation:Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. Though the primary host for the organism is the domestic cat, humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection which can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Both the female hormones, namely progesterone and oestrogen as well as the male hormones or androgens are lipid soluble. The common precursor of these is cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs.
On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2. The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis.
Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle.
Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Explanation:Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning. Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation. In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.
Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc
Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.
Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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