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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
    Pulse rate:...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
      Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
      12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.

      Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

    Effective dose 95...

    Incorrect

    • The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

      Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
      Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
      Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.

      Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Is the neuromuscular blocker of choice for rapid sequence induction

      Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin

      Explanation:

      The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.

      0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
      The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
      75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
      The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.

      A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).

      It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.

      Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      348.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination...

    Incorrect

    • Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?

      Your Answer: Etomidate

      Correct Answer: Thiopental

      Explanation:

      Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.

      Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
      – Propofol: 5-12 h
      – Methohexitone: 3-5 h
      – Ketamine: 2 h
      – Etomidate: 1-4 h

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Slows force and rate of contraction

      Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period

      Explanation:

      The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

      Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: May lead to hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

      Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

      The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

      Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?

      Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae

      Explanation:

      Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.

      Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.

      Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)

      Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.

      Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Incorrect

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.

      Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.

      Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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