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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk of fibroids?
Your Answer: Taking the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Risk of fibroids is more common among African ethnicity and is also related to obesity and early puberty. The role of combined oral contraceptive pills is still debatable and its results are conflicting, whereas the risk of fibroids decreases with the increase in number of pregnancies. i.e. multiparous women have a lower risk of fibroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal movements (RFM). From what gestation is CTG assessment of RFM advised?
Your Answer: 18+0 weeks
Correct Answer: 28+0 weeks
Explanation:The cardiotocograph (CTG) is a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate used to assess fetal wellbeing. The Doppler effect detects fetal heart motion and allows the interval between successive beats to be measured, thereby allowing a continuous assessment of fetal heart rate. The mother perceives the fetal movement by the 18-20 week of gestation and these increase until the 32 week. A mother should under go CTG if the fetal movements are reduced by the 28 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months.
Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa.
A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Follicular cyst
Correct Answer: Cystic teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.
Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.
Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.
Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.
Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?
Your Answer: Paraxial Mesoderm
Correct Answer: Endoderm
Explanation:The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?
Your Answer: Fibrin
Correct Answer: Tissue Factor
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands at 4'10. She shows no signs of breast development. She has no pubic hair on pelvic examination. The patient has a cervix and uterus, according to digital inspection. The ovaries cannot be felt. Serum FSH and LH levels are drawn as part of the workup, and both are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's delayed puberty and sexual infantilism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis
Explanation:In girls, delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea may be subdivided according to associated changes in stature. If the affected girl is short, the likely causes are gonadal dysgenesis (Turner syndrome) or hypopituitarism (with both gonadotropin and growth hormone deficiency). Gonadal dysgenesis results from the absence of a sex chromosome or other abnormality of a sex chromosome. In affected girls the gonads are streaks of fibrous tissue and contain no follicles, and these girls may have a variety of congenital anomalies, including a webbed neck, a shieldlike chest, or a small jaw.
Kallmann syndrome presents with amenorrhea, infantile sexual development, low gonadotropins, normal female karyotype, and anosmia (the inability to perceive odours).
In Müllerian agenesis, the Müllerian ducts either fail to develop or regress early in fetal life. These patients have normal ovarian development and normal secondary sexual characteristics. They present with a blind vaginal pouch and no upper vagina, cervix, or uterus, and primary amenorrhea.
The McCune-Albright syndrome rather presents with precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The posterior scrotal artery is a branch of which artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal Pudendal
Explanation:The posterior scrotal artery is a terminal branch of the perineal artery which is a branch of the internal pudendal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The uterine vein drains where?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal iliac vein
Explanation:The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
