00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:

      Your Answer: Has a duration of action similar to salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.

      Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.

      Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

    Effective dose 95...

    Correct

    • The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

      Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
      Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
      Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.

      Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin

      Explanation:

      The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.

      0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
      The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
      75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
      The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.

      A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).

      It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.

      Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstricts mesenteric vessels

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.

      According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation of Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

      Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

      Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

      The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      541.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Causes a lactic acidosis when continuously infused

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
    Pulse rate:...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
      Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
      12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.

      Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit protein wall synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer: Is synthesised in the posterior pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.

      Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is...

    Incorrect

    • The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).

      Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2

      Explanation:

      Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

      The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

      The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

      The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.

      He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.

      Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.

      Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.

      The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.

      Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.

      The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted

      Explanation:

      Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

      1st Phase:

      Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

      Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

      N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

      Phase II:

      Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

      As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period

      Explanation:

      The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

      Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol...

    Incorrect

    • Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exerts its effect by decreasing intracellular calcium

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

      Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

      Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

      It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.

      What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.

      Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.

      Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Incorrect

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.

      Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
      Heart rate: 125 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.

      On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.

      Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.

      Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.

      Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.

      Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Incorrect

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.

      His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.

      What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

      Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
      Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

      The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
      Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

      Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

      Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

      The following are some of the risk factors:

      Positive family history
      Male
      Children
      An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
      Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

      Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

      Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

      1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
      Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

      Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

      Midazolam:

      1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

      Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

      Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
      What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Incorrect

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution

      Explanation:

      The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph

      Explanation:

      Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
      Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.

      It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.

      Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
      Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
      Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time

      Explanation:

      Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

      Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

      Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is excreted in the urine

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.

      There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.

      LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.

      There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)

      LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal...

    Incorrect

    • A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.

      Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).

      Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.

      Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
      At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.

      As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.

      Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
      Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.

      Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

    Solution A contains...

    Incorrect

    • These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

      Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
      Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.

      What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B

      Explanation:

      The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:

      1. To Increase the duration of block
      2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
      3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).

      The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).

      The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
      The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.

      Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.

      Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a...

    Incorrect

    • When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
      Which of its property is responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Critical temperature

      Explanation:

      The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C

      The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.

      The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.

      There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase

      Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
      Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of an inguinal hernia. He weighs 10 kg. To provide post-operative analgesia, levobupivacaine was administered into the epidural space.

      Given the information above, what is the most appropriate dose for the hernia repair?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.25% 7.5 ml

      Explanation:

      Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.

      A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

      Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

      The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

      Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

      Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.

      According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.

      Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.

      Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.

      Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

    1 mg midazolam...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

      1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.

      Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synergism

      Explanation:

      Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:

      Additive interaction (summation).

      Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.

      Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.

      Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.

      Potentiation

      In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).

      Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).

      This can be subdivided into the following categories:

      -Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
      -Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
      -Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a...

    Incorrect

    • Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.

      It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a  concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.  Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.

      By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.

      Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.

      A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.

      It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.

      It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.

      It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.

      Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)

      Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

      It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia

      After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.

      It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.

      Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV

      Explanation:

      The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

      Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.

      The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:

      suxamethonium: 0.27
      rocuronium: 0.31
      vecuronium: 0.04
      pancuronium: 0.07
      cisatracurium: 0.04
      mivacurium: 0.08

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.

      Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
      The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

      Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
      Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
      Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
      Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
      Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.

      Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.

      Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.

      The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.

      Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:

      It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
      Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
      The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.

      The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.

      The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
      Halothane 2.3
      Desflurane 0.45
      Sevoflurane 0.6
      Nitrous oxide 0.47
      Isoflurane 1.4

      Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.

      Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.

      The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.

      In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (Age + 4) 2 = Weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.

      The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.

      The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.

      To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

      When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.

      Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

    When...

    Incorrect

    • Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

      When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.

      Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).

      Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.

      At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.

      At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.

      Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.

      Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.

      Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.

      Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC

      Explanation:

      Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

      In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

      A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

      L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

      Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
      Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
      Carbamazepine
      Sodium valproate
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbitone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease

      Explanation:

      Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.

      Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone

      Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.

      Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation

      Explanation:

      Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

      Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

      No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

      An alternative strategy can then be planned.

      The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

      Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

      Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
      Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.

      Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.

      Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He...

    Incorrect

    • Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.

      Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:

      Dental patients undergoing procedures
      Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).

      Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.

      To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
      acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
      previous valve replacement
      structural congenital heart disease
      past history of IE, or
      hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

      It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.

      Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/9) 11%
Passmed