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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age.
      On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
      The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following electrolyte combinations confirms the diagnosis of SIADH?

      Your Answer: Low serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Explanation:

      Due to the high amount of ADH in their blood, patient is voiding a low volume of urine with high osmolarity and as a result low levels of electrolytes will be present in the serum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 3 - Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in...

    Incorrect

    • Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteopenia in the measured site?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A T score of -2.6

      Explanation:

      Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
      The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
      DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
      Z-score values of -2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above -2.0 SD as within the expected range for age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

    Recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath.

      Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing.

      Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 5 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Incorrect

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
      Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy. On examination, her BP was 160/100 mmHg. On lab examination her Na+=142 mmol/L, K+=3.0mmol/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      In Conn’s syndrome hypokalaemia and hypertension are present due to high levels of aldosterone with normal to high sodium levels. In this disease, the patient presents with hypertension and feelings of tiredness or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old heavy drinker is brought to the A&E in a drowsy state. He is responding to questions however on examination he has nystagmus and hyper-reflexia. His MCV is 103fL.What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B1 Deficiency

      Explanation:

      Thiamine deficiency is very common with alcoholism. It manifests by Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. The patient is usually agitated, with an abnormal gait and amnesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI is noted to be 33 and urine culture is negative for nitrates. Which of the following investigations would be done next in order to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from diabetes mellitus. Diagnosis of DM involves checking for elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
      Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
      You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
      Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 10 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy.
      On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72 bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts.

      Investigations show:
      Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0)
      White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11)
      Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118)
      Total testosterone normal
      Free androgen index elevated
      LH / FSH ratio 2.2

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness.
    Blood tests reveal normal thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness.
      Blood tests reveal normal thyroid function, cortisol, growth hormone and gonadotropins. Pituitary MRI reveals a 0.8cm microadenoma.

      Which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      The patient has a non-functioning pituitary tumour as her hormone profile is normal.
      Non-functioning pituitary tumours are relatively common. A large number of these tumours are incidentally found pituitary microadenomas (<1 cm) and are usually of no clinical importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old male with long history of diabetes is complaining of a red-hot...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male with long history of diabetes is complaining of a red-hot tender lump near his anus. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abscess

      Explanation:

      A diabetic patient is a patient with depressed immunity. It is not uncommon to develop abscesses. Diabetic patients have a defected cellular innate immunity. On the other hand, bacteria become much more virulent in a high glucose environment in the interstitium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy.
      15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week.

      On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92 bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation.
      Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender.

      Results of blood tests show:

      Na 140 mmol/l
      K 4.8 mmol/l
      Glucose 9.8 mmol/l
      Albumin 41 g/l
      ALT 94 U/l
      ALP 61 U/l
      Bilirubin 18 mmol/l
      Ca 2.47 mmol/l
      WCC 10.1 × 109/l
      Hb 12.2 g/dl
      MCV 90.5 fl
      Platelets 234 × 109 /l
      PT 13 s

      Chest X-ray is normal.
      Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg during a routine medical check. She is otherwise well and her physical examination is unremarkable.
      Blood tests show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 2.6 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 31 mmol/l
      Urea 3.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 77 µmol/l

      Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin:aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism now is considered one of the more common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      Individuals with primary aldosteronism may present with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis; however, as many as 38% of patients with primary aldosteronism may be normokalaemia at presentation.
      Routine laboratory studies can show hypernatremia, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (i.e., enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).
      Plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is used for screening because it is fairly constant over many physiologic conditions.

      The patient is clinically free, so Cushing diseases can be exclude.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis.
      Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination reveals unilateral proptosis. She also admits that despite having a healthy appetite she has difficulty putting on weight. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s age and symptoms suggest Grave’s disease with thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy. In Grave’s disease, weight loss is noticed regardless of normal eating habits of the patient. Palpitations are also typical and may be confused with a panic attack. Proptosis is usually bilateral, but unilateral is also possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained:
      TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 29 pmol/l

      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as diabetic (DM type 2). He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as diabetic (DM type 2). He has a BMI=32. Lifestyle modification and exercise have failed to control his blood glucose levels. His labs were: urea=3.5mmol/l, creatinine=90 mmol/l, HbA1c=7.5g/dl. What will be the next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biguanide

      Explanation:

      For type 2 diabetics, biguanides are the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following findings would point towards a diagnosis of neonatal hypothyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would point towards a diagnosis of neonatal hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mother has hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Transient congenital hypothyroidism can be due to: iodine deficiency or excess, maternal consumption of goitrogens or antithyroid medications during pregnancy, transplacental passage of TSH receptor-blocking antibodies, and neonatal very low birth weight and prematurity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with diagnosis of thyroiditis associated with viral infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a self-limiting thyroid condition presenting with three clinical courses of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. In subacute thyroiditis serum thyroglobulin (TG) levels are elevated. ESR is usually greater than 50 mm/h, often exceeding 100 mm/h. Radio-iodine uptake is low or nil. Antithyroperoxidase antibodies are associated with autoimmune thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations.
      His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
      It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
      1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
      Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
      2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
      – Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
      – Arthritis
      – Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:
      fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3- 6)
      sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)
      potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
      calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6).

      However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.
      What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6 mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis.

      On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin.
      It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 28 - An 8-year-old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration

      Explanation:

      The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 29 - Patients with myeloma mostly present with which of the following condition when in...

    Incorrect

    • Patients with myeloma mostly present with which of the following condition when in hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcemia is the most important finding in all types of malignancies. In myeloma it is especially caused by osteoclast activating factors which increase bone turnover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 30 - All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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