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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?
Your Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality
Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides
Explanation:Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 2
Correct
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A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?
Your Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon
Explanation:Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 3
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A woman presents having overdosed on Imipramine. Which investigation should be done immediately?
Your Answer: ECG
Explanation:Imipramine is a NSRI tricyclic antidepressant. It has a narrow therapeutic index . It might cause tachyarrhythmia and ECG changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?
Your Answer: CT scan
Correct Answer: Urea & Electrolytes
Explanation:Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.
Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common; thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.
Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common.
Liver function tests may be elevated.
Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found.
Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis.
Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range; triiodothyronine levels are decreased.
Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.
In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone.
There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 5
Correct
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In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?
Your Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
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An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?
Your Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C
Explanation:In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.
Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperchylomicronaemia
Explanation:Hyperchylomicronaemia is an increase (markedly) in chylomicrons, and this can cause acute pancreatitis, as well as xanthomas. It can be seen in familial lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency, primary type V hyperlipoproteinemia, idiopathic hyperchylomicronaemia, and familial apolipoprotein CII deficiency. Treatment is dietary fat restriction in order to avoid pancreatitis attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency complaining of frank haematuria. There are no associated symptoms. Which of the following would be the most helpful in pointing towards a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic indications for cystoscopy include the following: evaluation of patients with voiding symptoms (storage or obstructive), gross or microscopic haematuria, urologic fistulas, urethral or bladder diverticula and congenital anomalies in paediatric population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital for elective herniorrhaphy. Which of the following options will lead to a postponement of his operation?
Your Answer: Systolic BP less than 90mmHg
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction two months ago
Explanation:Patients with a recent cerebrovascular incident (less than 60 days) are at very high risk of cardiac complications when under general anaesthesia. Complications like MI, heart failure and even death. Elective surgery should be postponed till stabilization of the cardiac condition is achieved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old male who has had chemotherapy recently, presented with uncontrollable vomiting. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Ondansetron IM
Explanation:Ondansetron is the drug of choice for chemotherapy induced vomiting. IM or IV Ondansetron should be considered due to uncontrollable vomiting and thus inability to take medication orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome
Correct Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)
Explanation:The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old female smoker who is diabetic and hypertensive, presents to the emergency which acute chest pain and worsening condition. She is obese and has recently been immobile due to a hip pain. The doctor fails to resuscitate her and she is pronounced dead. What do you think caused her death?
Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is the obstruction of one or more pulmonary arteries by solid, liquid, or gaseous masses. In most cases, the embolism is caused by blood thrombi, which arise from the deep vein system in the legs or pelvis (deep vein thrombosis) and embolize to the lungs via the inferior vena cava.
Risk factors include: immobility, inherited hypercoagulability disorders, being overweight or obese, smoking cigarettes, taking birth control pills (oral contraceptives) or hormone replacement therapy, having diseases such as stroke, paralysis, chronic heart disease, or high blood pressure, pregnancy, and recent surgery.
The clinical presentation is variable and, depending on the extent of vessel obstruction, can range from asymptomatic to cardiogenic shock. Symptoms are often nonspecific, including chest pain, coughing, dyspnoea, and tachycardia.
The diagnosis of PE is based primarily on the clinical findings and is confirmed by detection of an embolism in contrast CT pulmonary angiography (CTA). Arterial blood gas analysis typically shows evidence of respiratory alkalosis with low partial oxygen pressure, low partial carbon dioxide pressure, and elevated pH. Another commonly performed test is the measurement of D-dimer levels, which can rule out PE if negative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
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A 60-year-old female with a recent history of MI, complained of exertional dyspnoea. On examination there was a third heart sound. ECG showed ST elevations in leads V1 to V4. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm
Explanation:Electrocardiography is characterized by ST elevation that persists several weeks after an acute MI. The features of heart failure (exertional dyspnoea and third or fourth heart sound) favours the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents suffering from retrosternal chest pain that started 2 hours ago and radiates to the throat. Which investigation would you immediately perform?
Your Answer: Electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Troponin levels
Explanation:The patient’s age and symptoms are indicating a myocardial infarction. Although, the cause of the pain could also be related to the digestive system, a possible myocardial infarction should be excluded or, if present, managed immediately. Troponins are used to establish the diagnosis. Levels of troponin can become elevated in the blood within 3 or 4 hours after heart injury and may remain elevated for 10 to 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient with hypertension complains of acute urinary retention. He provides a history of urinary frequency for the past 18 months and has been taking Nifedipine and Propranolol for blood pressure control. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his acute presentation?
Your Answer: Enlarged prostate gland
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Calcium channel blockers decrease smooth-muscle contractility in the bladder and this can cause urinary retention.
An enlarged prostate gland could be the reason if he gave a history of obstructive symptoms.
Diabetes presents with polyuria.
Bladder cancer commonly presents with painless haematuria. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 17
Correct
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A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?
Your Answer: Aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 70-year-old male complains of anuria and back pain for the last 3 days. He looked tired and had complaints of pruritus and hiccups. Which of the following metabolic abnormalities is most likely?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Symptoms are suggestive of renal failure leading to uraemia. For patients with these symptoms metabolic acidosis is the most probable cause. Hyperkalaemia instead of hypokalaemia is present in the patients with renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test after 2 hrs was 10mml/l. What is the result of her test?
Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Impaired glucose tolerance is a pre-diabetic state of hyperglycaemia that is associated with insulin resistance and increased risk of cardiovascular pathology. To diagnose impaired glucose tolerance, the OGTT value after 2 hrs should be 140-199mg/dl (7.7 – 11.0 mmol/l). Impaired fasting glucose is diagnosed as fasting blood sugar between 100 mg/dl to 125 mg/dl.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is characteristic of immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
Your Answer: Infants born to a woman with ITP often presents with bleeding diathesis in the first 48 hours
Correct Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is a recognised association
Explanation:Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) refers to thrombocytopaenia occurring in the absence of toxic exposure or other diseases associated with low platelets and involves IgG-type antibodies. It is characterised by normal or increased marrow megakaryocytes, shortened platelet survival, and the absence of splenomegaly. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) occurs commonly in association with ITP. Leukemic transformation, however, does not occur in ITP.
In neonatal ITP, IgG antibodies are passively transferred across the placenta. The infant platelet count may be normal at birth but decreases within 12-24 hours. It is rarely severe enough to induce bleeding diathesis in the infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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