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Question 1
Correct
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A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child. She attends clinic complaining of severe vomiting and is unable to keep fluids down. The most likely diagnosis is hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Increased circulating HCG
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, associated with weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. HG is usually most severe during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy and is thought to be caused by high circulating levels of HCG.
There is not yet any evidence that pregnancy itself increases the sensitivity of the area postrema, or that the hormones, oestradiol, or progesterone increase vomiting. Generally, higher concentrations of dopamine stimulates receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone leading to nausea and vomiting. Although this has not been demonstrated as the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation.
On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation.
Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Ultrasound of uterus
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?
Your Answer: Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers
Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Explanation:For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.
She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.
What's would you do next?Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?
Your Answer: Advise vaccination as soon as possible
Correct Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status
Explanation:Congenital rubella infection that occurs after 16 weeks gestation does not typically cause fetal abnormalities. This however plays no part in vaccination advice. Rubella vaccine is live and should not be given during pregnancy. The mother should be offered vaccination after giving birth. It is safe for the vaccine (typically given as combined MMR) to be administered if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.
What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group?
Your Answer: 20 - 30
Explanation:The maternal mortality rate starts low and raises steeply after the age of 30 years. The lowest mortality rate recorded among women is between 19-30 years of age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?
Your Answer: The cervix is open
Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort
Explanation:Threatened abortion:
– Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
– Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
– 50% survival
More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?Your Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?
Your Answer: 100%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 13-year-old woman is complaining of a lot of acne in her face. Her BMI is 37. She does not have her period yet. She has high insulin levels in her labs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device
Explanation:Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.
Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.
Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).
The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual intercourse and dysmenorrhea. She is requesting a reversible contraceptive method. Which of the following would be most suitable?
Your Answer: Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)
Correct Answer: Mirena
Explanation:Mirena is a form of contraception also indicated for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding and the management of dysmenorrhea, being able to reduce the latter considerably.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Fetal tone
Correct Answer: Fetal weight
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a nonstress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 16
Correct
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While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?
Your Answer: Urinary
Explanation:Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?
Your Answer: Perineal
Correct Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic
Explanation:The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Regarding placental anatomy:
Your Answer: The fetal side of the placenta is divided into 30-40 cotyledons
Correct Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi
Explanation:The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer: 2-3 hours
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What form is 99% of body calcium found in?
Your Answer: Calcium Gluconate
Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate
Explanation:Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?
Your Answer: IV antiemetics
Correct Answer: IV steroids
Explanation:In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:
Your Answer: Ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein
Explanation:Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine bleeding. Patient’s menstrual periods previously occurred monthly, which lasts of 4 days with moderate bleeding and light cramping. However, for the past 8 months, she has had intermenstrual spotting and bleeding which have occurred at varying intervals and last for 3-7 days.
Patient had started combination oral contraceptives 4 months ago, which has not improved the bleeding pattern.
On examination her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min and BMI is 29 kg/m2.
Speculum examination shows dark red blood in the posterior vaginal vault but no cervical or vaginal lesions. Remainder of the pelvic examination was normal.
Her laboratory results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 12.2 g/dL
- Prolactin: 5 ng/mL
- TSH: 1.8 µU/mL
- Urine pregnancy test is negative.
Pelvic ultrasound shows an anteverted uterus without any adnexal masses.
Which of the following is considered the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Endometrial ablation
Correct Answer: Endometrial biopsy
Explanation:Uncontrolled endometrial proliferation due to excess and unregulated estrogen is the reason for intermenstrual bleeding and irregular menses along with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) in this patient. The condition is mostly associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer.
The absolute risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer is very low in women aged <45, therefore they can be started on combination medication with estrogen/progestin contraception (ie, medical management) without the evaluation of endometrium. The estrogen component of medication regulates the menstrual cycle by build up the endometrium; whereas the progestin component helps in shedding of the endometrium.
However, patients who have continued irregular menstrual bleeding even while on combination contraceptives require further evaluation as they have failed to improve with medical management. In such patients, the endometrial lining will be too thick for the progestin to completely shed during menstruation and this unshed endometrium continues to undergo dysregulated proliferation, leading to an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer. Therefore, patients age below 45 with AUB who have failed medical management require an endometrial biopsy.
AUB persistent above 6 months, obesity, and/or tamoxifen therapy are the other indications for endometrial biopsy in women age <45, as all of these will increase the amount of unopposed endometrial estrogen exposure. In patients with heavy menstrual bleeding and anemia, coagulation studies are performed to evaluate for bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease. It is not necessary in this patient as she have a normal hemoglobin level. In patients with heavy, but regular (ovulatory) bleeding an endometrial ablation, which is a procedure used to remove the excess endometrium, can be considered as the treatment option. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated in undiagnosed cases of AUB as it prevents evaluation of the endometrium in patients with possible endometrial hyperplasia
ancer.To check for abnormalities of the uterus like didelphys or of the Fallopian tube like scarring, a hysterosalpingogram is used but it is not useful to evaluate AUB. In addition, as the procedure could spread cancerous endometrial cells into the abdominal cavity, hysterosalpingogram is contraindicated in cases of undiagnosed AUB.
To evaluate secondary amenorrhea, ie. absence of menses for >6 months in a patient with previously irregular menses, a progesterone withdrawal test is used to determine whether amenorrhea is from low estrogen level, in negative cases there will be no bleeding after progesterone. This test is not indicated or relevant in this case as patient had continued bleeding while on oral contraceptives suggestive of high estrogen levels.
Evaluation for endometrial hyperplasia
ancer with an endometrial biopsy is required for those women age <45 with abnormal uterine bleeding who have failed medical management with oral contraceptives. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins.
Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?Your Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months
Explanation:Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends EPU due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid
Correct Answer: Red degeneration of fibroid
Explanation:Red degeneration of fibroids is one of 4 methods of fibroid degeneration. Although uncommon outside pregnancy it is thought to be the most common form of fibroid degeneration during pregnancy and typically occurs in the 2nd trimester. It is thought to arise from the fibroid outgrowing its blood supply and haemorrhagic infarction occurs. Ultrasound will typically show a localised fluid collection (blood) within the fibroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Correct
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Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?
Your Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour
Explanation:Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.
What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer
Explanation:TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.
The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.
Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?Your Answer: She should take enoxaparin injections for six months and then start warfarin
Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin
Explanation:No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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