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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst,...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old female presented in the emergency department with complaints of increased thirst, confusion and drowsiness. When taking her history it was found that she was treated successfully for breast malignancy 2 years ago. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcemia

      Explanation:

      Treated breast malignancy is pointing towards hypercalcemia as it is very common in patients of CA. The symptoms of hypercalcemia are increased thirst, drowsiness and confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      1023.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It is non-functional in adults

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      38.8
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
      She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months.
      She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone).
      A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal.

      Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.

      What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
      Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
      Short stature
      Stocky habitus
      Obesity
      Developmental delay
      Round face
      Dental hypoplasia
      Brachymetacarpals
      Brachymetatarsals
      Soft tissue calcification/ossification
      The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
      The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old male presents to the OPD with a deep painless ulcer on...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male presents to the OPD with a deep painless ulcer on the heel. His previous history includes increased thirst, urinary frequency, and weight loss for the last 4 years. Which of the following investigations would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      People with diabetes are prone to foot problems that develop due to prolonged periods of high blood sugar levels. Diabetic neuropathy and peripheral vascular disease are the two main causes of foot problems and both can have serious complications. Diabetes can cause serious foot problems that can result in feet or limb loss, deformity, and infections. However, it is possible for a person to prevent or minimize many of these problems. While controlling blood sugar by following the recommended diabetes treatment plans is the best way to prevent these serious problems, self-care and regular check-ups with a doctor can also help prevent problems from developing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice.

      What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
      On examination, she is hemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
      TFTs show the following:
      Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23)
      Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)

      What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old obese patient arrives at the clinic for a regular health check up. His labs are as follows: Fasting blood sugar: 6 mmol/l, Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): 10 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis. With impaired glucose tolerance you face a much greater risk of developing diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as 2-hour glucose levels of 140 to 199 mg per dL (7.8 to 11.0 mmol) on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, and impaired fasting glucose is defined as glucose levels of 100 to 125 mg per dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol per L) in fasting patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI is noted to be 33 and urine culture is negative for nitrates. Which of the following investigations would be done next in order to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from diabetes mellitus. Diagnosis of DM involves checking for elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy.
      On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72 bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts.

      Investigations show:
      Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0)
      White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11)
      Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118)
      Total testosterone normal
      Free androgen index elevated
      LH / FSH ratio 2.2

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination reveals unilateral proptosis. She also admits that despite having a healthy appetite she has difficulty putting on weight. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s age and symptoms suggest Grave’s disease with thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy. In Grave’s disease, weight loss is noticed regardless of normal eating habits of the patient. Palpitations are also typical and may be confused with a panic attack. Proptosis is usually bilateral, but unilateral is also possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma.
      On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
      Investigations show:
      Hb 12.6 g/dl
      WCC 5.4 x109/l
      PLT 299 x109/l
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 Ù‰mol/l
      Albumin 37 g/l
      Ca++ 2.95 mmol/l
      PTH 18 (normal<10)

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
      Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20-25 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease, presented with pain in the thigh and gluteal region, while climbing up the stairs for past 5 months and symptoms were getting worse. He was a heavy smoker. On examination the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      The presence of the pulses excluded Thromboangitis Obliterans. The pain is not suggestive of sciatica. The history doesn’t support a DVT or an embolus as there is no pain at rest, swelling or skin changes. So the most probable diagnosis is atherosclerosis as the chronic diabetes and smoking support it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old male has gone to his local doctor's surgery complaining of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male has gone to his local doctor's surgery complaining of weight loss, an increased thirst, and urinating more frequently. His father, grandfather, and both of his sisters have all been diagnosed with DM. What type of DM does this patient most likely suffer from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MODY

      Explanation:

      The key features of MODY are: being diagnosed with DM under the age of 15, having a parent with DM, and DM in two or more generations of the family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 18 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Incorrect

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
      Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen.
      Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25-0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC.
      The following results are obtained:
      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 5.4 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 42 umol/l
      TSH 3.5 mu/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/l

      You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 22 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he received tetanus toxoid 8 years ago. What should be done for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human immunoglobulin only

      Explanation:

      Only immunoglobulins are required, as he is already immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising and weight gain. A low dose Dexamethasone suppression test did not show any but a high dose Dexamethasone suppression test showed suppression of cortisol levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary Adenoma

      Explanation:

      Clinical features are due to excess cortisol. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test shows suppression in patients with Cushing’s disease. Cushing syndrome includes all causes of glucocorticoid excess, whereas Cushing’s disease is reserved only for pituitary-dependent Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair.
      Blood results are shown below:
      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1-7)
      Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9-35)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presented in the OPD with complaints of tiredness and lethargy. On examination, her BP was 160/100 mmHg. On lab examination her Na+=142 mmol/L, K+=3.0mmol/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      In Conn’s syndrome hypokalaemia and hypertension are present due to high levels of aldosterone with normal to high sodium levels. In this disease, the patient presents with hypertension and feelings of tiredness or fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg.
      On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32.

      Investigations show:
      Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 - 17.7)
      White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 - 11)
      Platelets 180 x109/l (150 - 400)
      Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 - 146)
      Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 - 5)
      Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 - 118)
      HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0)

      He would like to start sitagliptin.
      Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
      In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful. It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist. Which one of the following medications is an example of a muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

    Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

      Investigations reveal:
      Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110)
      Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)

      Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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