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  • Question 1 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer: Give rise to the splenic, right gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had...

    Incorrect

    • An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had cancer of the pancreas and presented with subsequent severe obstructive jaundice. In which part of this was woman's pancreas was the tumour most likely located?

      Your Answer: Body

      Correct Answer: Head

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is divided into five parts; the head, body, neck, tail, and the uncinate process. Of the five parts, tumours located at the head of the pancreas in most instances cause obstruction of the common bile duct more often than tumours in the other parts of the pancreas. This is because the common bile duct passes through the head of the pancreas from the gallbladder and the liver (it is formed where the cystic and the hepatic bile duct join) to empty bile into the duodenum. This biliary obstruction leads to accumulation of bile in the liver and a consequent bilirubinaemia (raised levels of blood bilirubin). This results in jaundice. The pancreas is not divided into lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Correct

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Incorrect

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer: It has thinner and fewer vascular coats

      Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and...

    Correct

    • The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?

      Your Answer: Tail of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen,...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epiploic appendages

      Explanation:

      The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.

      Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.

      Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood...

    Incorrect

    • The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood from various arteries in the body. Which one of the following is an artery that will lead to some level of ischaemia to the oesophagus when ligated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left inferior phrenic

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus receives its blood supply from the following arteries: the inferior thyroid branch of the thyrocervical trunk, the descending thoracic aorta, the left gastric branch of the coeliac artery and the from the left inferior phrenic artery of the abdominal aorta. Hence ligation of the left inferior phrenic will lead to ischemia to some portions of the oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the...

    Incorrect

    • In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.

      The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.

      The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.

      The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.

      The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.

      The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm...

    Incorrect

    • During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.

      The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.

      The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.

      The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Incorrect

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:

      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine

      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.

      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the...

    Incorrect

    • During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum, the most appropriate site to make the incision on the anterior abdominal wall to approach this ulcer would be the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epigastric region

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided into nine regions for descriptive purposes. The epigastric region contains the first part of the duodenum, part of the stomach, part of the liver and pancreas. This would be the region that the surgeon would need to enter to access the ulcer.

      Typically, a midline incision in the epigastric region, extending from just below the xiphoid process down to the umbilicus, provides excellent access to the first part of the duodenum.

      The left inguinal region contains the sigmoid colon.

      The left lumbar region contains the descending colon and kidney.

      The right lumbar region contains the right kidney and descending colon.

      The right hypochondrial region contains part of the liver and gall bladder.

      The hypogastric region contains the urinary bladder and the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Incorrect

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Incorrect

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Incorrect

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:

      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.

      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.

      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.

      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.

      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.

      The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.

      The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.

      The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.

      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.

      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.

      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.

      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (4/9) 44%
Anatomy (4/9) 44%
Passmed