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Question 1
Correct
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A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.
Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Atropine
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.
If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.
What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?Your Answer: A dose of co-amoxiclav IV as antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis
Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis
Explanation:According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer: Bacterial DNA damage
Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
Heart rate: 125 beats/min
Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.
On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Explanation:Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.
Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.
Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.
Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?
Your Answer: Inactivates thrombin more readily than unfractionated heparin
Correct Answer: Is excreted in the urine
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.
There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.
LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.
There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)
LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.
Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?Your Answer: It needs to work rapidly
Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution
Explanation:When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:
LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)
Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).
In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration
Explanation:Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.
Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.
Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:
Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion
Explanation:Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?
Your Answer: Escitalopram
Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine
Explanation:Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.
There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.
Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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