-
Question 1
Correct
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.
This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?Your Answer: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus
Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desflurane
Explanation:Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.
Why is this the best route of administration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(Age + 4) 2 = Weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.
The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.
The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.
To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.
When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.
Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.
Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.
Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.
Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.
Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)