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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?
Your Answer: 25 in 1000
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer: Endometrial
Correct Answer: Mucinous
Explanation:Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan findings corresponds to 8 weeks of gestations.
On laboratory examination, her urine culture came out as Staphylococcus saprophyticus resistant to amoxicillin, but she is otherwise asymptomatic.
Which among the following is considered the best management for her?Your Answer: Prescribe her with Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Augmentin
Explanation:In the given case, the patient should be treated with Augmentin.
Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurs in about 2 % to 10 % of all pregnancies and if left untreated, about 30% of this will develop acute cystitis and the other 50% will develop acute pyelonephritis.Escherichia coli is the most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria, which consists more than 80% of the isolate and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus accounts for about 5-10% of isolates associated with uncomplicated UTI. Escherichia coli is a very common normal flora found in the gastrointestinal tract and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus is a commonly found normal flora in genital tract and perineum.
Asymptomatic bacteriuria has found to be associated with low birth weight and preterm birth, and it is found that a short term antibiotic treatment will help in improving the fetal outcomes in cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria or uncomplicated UTI. Hence, all cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria and uncomplicated UTI during pregnancy are recommended to be treated with a five day course of oral antibiotics as this is normally sufficient in pregnant women.
Drug of choice in asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of E. coli are either:
– Cephalexin 500 mg oral twice a day for 5 days or
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg orally twice daily for 5 days or
– Trimethoprim 300 mg oral doses daily for 5 days (avoided during first trimester and in those pregnant women with established folate deficiency, low dietary folate intake, or for women taking other folate antagonists).
– Amoxicillin + clavulanate 500 + 125 mg oral, twice daily for 5 days if < 20 weeks of gestation.
Note: In view of childhood outcomes – (ORACLE II trial and 7 year follow-up), which showed an associated increase in necrotising enterocolitis, functional impairment (low), and cerebral palsy, it is recommended that amoxicillin / clavulanate is only used if no alternative treatment is available(if >20 weeks of gestation).Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities ) in case of Staphylococcus saprophyticus infection is as follows:
Cephalexin 500 mg oral doses twice a day for 5 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days.Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of infection with Pseudomonas suggest Norfloxacin 400 mg oral twice daily for 5 days, then repeat MSSU 48 hours after the treatment is completed.
In case of Group B streptococcus as a single organism, Penicillin V 500 mg oral twice daily for 5 days. If the patient is hypersensitive to penicillin give Cephalexin 500 mg orally twice a day for 5 days were immediate hypersensitivity is excluded. If immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin is noticed, then Clindamycin 450 mg three times daily for 5 days is advised.
Amoxicillin is found more effective in treating UTIs caused by organisms which are resistant to the drug in vitro because of its high concentrations attainable in urine. However, a study shows that amoxicillin-resistant organisms do not respond to amoxicillin alone but Augmentin [amoxicillin clavulanate] is found to cure urinary tract infection irrespective of the amoxicillin susceptibility of the organism in vitro. Of the patients infected with amoxicillin-resistant organisms, 80% were cured by augmentin and only 10% with infection by amoxicillin-resistant organisms were cured by amoxicillin.
Now a days Amoxicillin is not preferred as the common treatment option for UTI due to increasing incidences of Escherichia coli resistance, which accounts majority of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. Clavulanic acid which is a beta-lactamase inhibitor works synergistically with amoxicillin to extend spectrum antibiotic susceptibility. This makes UTIs less likely to be resistant to the treatment with amoxicillin clavulanate compared to amoxicillin alone.
Ciprofloxacin and Gentamicin which are the other antibiotic choice considered otherwise also should be avoided in pregnancy as they comes under FDA pregnancy Category C. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.
Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?Your Answer: High FSH and low E2.
Explanation:High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.
It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?
Your Answer: Station -1
Correct Answer: Station 0
Explanation:Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Correct
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HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)
Explanation:HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with low risk, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. While types 16,18,31 and 33 are associated with high risk, high grade neoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:
Your Answer: Mucous secretion of the cervix
Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous
Explanation:Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.
Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?Your Answer: Although treatment with antiviral agents such as acyclovir will reduce the rate recurrence of the disease, they cannot be used during pregnancy because of their adverse effects on the foetus
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic
Explanation:Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.
HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.
In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).
Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?Your Answer: From day 8 to day 19
Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17
Explanation:Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Atrophic vaginitis.
Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.
Explanation:It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.
In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child. She attends clinic complaining of severe vomiting and is unable to keep fluids down. The most likely diagnosis is hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased circulating HCG
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, associated with weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. HG is usually most severe during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy and is thought to be caused by high circulating levels of HCG.
There is not yet any evidence that pregnancy itself increases the sensitivity of the area postrema, or that the hormones, oestradiol, or progesterone increase vomiting. Generally, higher concentrations of dopamine stimulates receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone leading to nausea and vomiting. Although this has not been demonstrated as the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus
Explanation:Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
– Age above 35 years.
– Smoking.
– High intake of caffeine.
– Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
– Viral infections.
– Thrombophilia.
– Chromosomal abnormalities.
Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilium
Explanation:The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.
Explanation:The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.
Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.
An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.
Explanation:Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25 year old primigravida with a regular cycle had her last menstrual period on June 30th. Therefore the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately when the following year:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7-Apr
Explanation:Expected date of delivery (EDD) is a calculated from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period. If her periods are regular i.e., 28-day menstrual cycle, Naegele’s rule may be used. Naegele’s rule involves a simple calculation: add seven days to the first day of your LMP and then subtract three months. e.g. 30 June + 7 days = 7 July, minus 3 months = 7 April.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding the biophysical profile:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased [H+]
Explanation:The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right: Increased temperature Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis) Increased 2,3 DPG Increased pCO2 The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left: Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left Decreased temperature Decreased [H+] (alkalosis) Decreased 2,3 DPG The Oxygen Dissociation Curve for fetal haemoglobin lies to the left of the normal adult Oxygen Dissociation Curve as it has a higher affinity for Oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.
Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.
Further examination was done and her results were:
Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
Pulse is 112/min
Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The testicular arteries are branches of what?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aorta
Explanation:The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity
Explanation:At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 46
Explanation:In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 24 year old patient decides to take a Chlamydia screening test whilst in the GP surgery. He is asymptomatic. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. His partner attends for testing and wants to know the risk of contracting Chlamydia. What is the risk of chlamydia infection following intercourse with an asymptomatic chlamydia positive partner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 65%
Explanation:The chances of transmitting chlamydia from an asymptomatic partner through sexual intercourse is 65%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.
What would you advice her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.
The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).
Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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