00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of...

    Correct

    • During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of pain and tingling of all fingers of the right hand. The attending physician is considering carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following is expected to undergo atrophy in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: The thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy caused by compression of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist’s carpal tunnel. It is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy, accounting for 90% of all neuropathies. Early symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include pain, numbness, and paraesthesia’s. These symptoms typically present, with some variability, in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and the radial half (thumb side) of the ring finger. Pain also can radiate up the affected arm. With further progression, hand weakness, decreased fine motor coordination, clumsiness, and thenar atrophy can occur.

      The muscles innervated by the median nerve can be remembered using the mnemonic ‘LOAF’:
      L– lateral two lumbricals
      O– Opponens pollicis
      A– Abductor pollicis
      F– Flexor pollicis brevis

      In the early presentation of the disease, symptoms most often present at night when lying down and are relieved during the day. With further progression of the disease, symptoms will also be present during the day, especially with certain repetitive activities, such as when drawing, typing, or playing video games. In more advanced disease, symptoms can be constant.

      Typical occupations of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome include those who use computers for extended periods of time, those who use equipment that has vibration such as construction workers, and any other occupation requiring frequent, repetitive movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.

      Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?

      Your Answer: Isophane insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:

      1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH):
      – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin
      – starts their action in 1 to 4 hours
      – peaks in 4 to 8 hours
      – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day
      – Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine

      2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)
      – starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes
      – peaks in 90 to 120 minutes
      – duration of action is 6 to 8 hours
      – taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia

      3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)
      – start action in 1 to 2 hours
      – plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours
      – Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day.

      4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine)
      – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes
      – peak in 30 minutes
      – The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours
      – generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The normal range of arterial HCO3- is: ...

    Correct

    • The normal range of arterial HCO3- is:

      Your Answer: 24 - 30 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Normal ranges:
      pH = 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2(on air) = 11 -14 kPa
      pCO2= 4.5 – 6.0 kPa
      HCO3-= 24 – 30 mmol/L
      BE = +/- 2 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following best describes the main sites of constriction of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the main sites of constriction of the ureters:

      Your Answer: At the ureteropelvic junction, at the pelvic brim and where the ureters enter the bladder

      Explanation:

      At three points along their course, the ureters are constricted denoting the most likely areas for renal calculi to lodge:the first point is at the ureteropelvic junction (where the renal pelvis becomes continuous with the ureter)the second point is where the ureter crosses the common iliac vessels at the pelvic brimthe third point is at the vesicoureteric junction (where the ureter enters the wall of the bladder)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation...

    Correct

    • Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of 3 weeks and longer?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.

      The usual incubation period for rubella is 14 days; with a range of 12 to 23 days.

      Gonorrhoea has a short incubation period of approximately 2 to 7 days.

      The mumps virus can be isolated from infected saliva and swabs rubbed over the Stensen’s duct from 9 days before onset of symptoms until 8 days after parotitis appears.

      Scarlet fever, which appears within 1 to 2 days after bacterial infection, is characterized by a diffuse red rash that appears on the upper chest and spreads to the trunk and extremities. The rash disappears over the next 5 to
      7 days and is followed by desquamation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      152.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:...

    Incorrect

    • The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Factors decreasing FRC:
      Restrictive ventilatory defects e.g. pulmonary fibrosis
      Posture – lying supine
      Increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. obesity, pregnancy, ascites)
      Reduced muscle tone of diaphragm e.g. muscle relaxants in anaesthesia, neuromuscular disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT

      Explanation:

      Laboratory results often show that:
      PFA-100 test results are abnormal.
      Low levels of factor VIII (if a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is conducted)
      APTT is Prolonged (or normal)
      PT is normal
      VWF values are low.
      Defective Platelet aggregation
      The platelet count is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding gas gangrene, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas gangrene, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Diagnosis should be made with enzyme immunoassay before starting treatment.

      Correct Answer: Infection is characterised by rapidly spreading tissue myonecrosis with crepitus.

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene usually occurs within 3 days of injury, and is characterised by pain, rapidly spreading oedema, myositis, necrosis, palpable crepitus and systemic toxicity. Diagnosis is clinical and laboratory confirmation should not delay urgent surgical intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can be considered in addition to surgery and antibiotic therapy, to stop toxin production and inhibit bacteria from replicating and spreading (as Clostridium spp. are obligate anaerobes).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, all...

    Incorrect

    • At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: The whole heart is relaxed.

      Correct Answer: The semilunar valves are open.

      Explanation:

      At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, the whole of the heart is relaxed. The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open because the atrial pressure is still slightly greater than the ventricular pressure. The semilunar valves are closed, as the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta is greater than the ventricular pressures. The cycle starts when the sinoatrial node (SAN) initiates atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation.

      Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?

      Your Answer: Increased intravascular osmotic pressure leads to oedema

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks.

      Acute inflammation
      Rapid onset (minutes to hours)
      Quick resolution (usually days)

      Chronic inflammation
      May last weeks, months, or years

      There are five cardinal signs of inflammation:
      1) Pain
      2) Redness
      3) Warmth
      4) Oedema
      5) Loss of function

      During acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:
      1) Margination
      Neutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination
      2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium
      3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)
      4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cells

      Bradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.

      Neutrophils dominate early (<2 days)
      – Many in the bloodstream
      – Attach firmly to adhesion molecules
      – Apoptosis after 24-48hrs
      Monocytes/macrophages dominate late (>2 days)
      – Live longer
      – Replicate in tissues

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following data types does a pain-scoring system represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following data types does a pain-scoring system represent?

      Your Answer: Discrete

      Correct Answer: Ordinal

      Explanation:

      Pain scoring systems are processes for assessing pain and the severity of illnesses that have been scientifically designed and tested. An example of ordinal categorical data is a pain scoring system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old patient with worsening epigastric pain has been referred to you by...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient with worsening epigastric pain has been referred to you by a GP. The patient has been taking omeprazole for a month, but her symptoms are getting worse.

      Which of the following is NOT a well-known side effect of proton pump inhibitor treatment?

      Your Answer: Focal tachyarrhythmias

      Correct Answer: Pelvic fracture

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have a variety of side effects, including:
      Vomiting and nausea
      Pain in the abdomen
      Flatulence
      Diarrhoea
      Constipation
      Headache

      PPIs have been linked to a significant increase in the risk of focal tachyarrhythmias (link is external).
      Low serum magnesium and sodium levels have been linked to long-term use of PPIs, according to the US Food and Drug Administration (link is external).

      Long-term PPI use has also been linked to an increased risk of fracture, according to epidemiological evidence (link is external). Observational studies have discovered a slight link between hip, wrist, and spine fractures. However, there is no link between the two and an increased risk of pelvic fracture. For this reason, the MHRA recommends that patients at risk of osteoporosis who take PPIs maintain an adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old female presents with a history of morning stiffness and arthritis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female presents with a history of morning stiffness and arthritis of her hand joints. She is being investigated for rheumatoid arthritis.

      Which test is most sensitive and specific for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP

      Explanation:

      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) is an antibody present in 60-80% of rheumatoid arthritis patients. It is measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). It may be present years before the onset of the disease and is associated with a more severe disease course.

      While most patients with anti-CCP antibodies are also positive for rheumatoid factor (RF), RF antibody is not specific for rheumatoid arthritis as it can occur in patients with other conditions such as infections and other autoimmune conditions.

      ESR, antinuclear antibodies(ANA) and Synovial fluid examination are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of recurrent stomach ulcers. It's possible that the patient has Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about stomach acid is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The proton pump located in the canalicular membrane is vital to its secretion

      Explanation:

      The stomach produces gastric acid, which is a digesting fluid. The stomach secretes about 2-3 litres every day. It is involved in tissue breakdown, the conversion of pepsinogen to active pepsin, and the creation of soluble salts with calcium and iron, and has a pH range of 1.5-3.5. It also serves as an immune system by destroying microbes.

      The following substances are found in gastric acid:
      Water
      Acid hydrochloride
      Pepsinogen
      mucous
      Intrinsic factor

      The parietal cells in the proximal 2/3 (body) of the stomach release gastric acid. The concentration of hydrogen ions in parietal cell secretions is 1-2 million times that of blood. Chloride is released against both a concentration and an electric gradient, and active transport is required for the parietal cell to produce acid.

      The following is how stomach acid is secreted:

      1. Gastric acid secretion is dependent on the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) situated in the canalicular membrane. The breakdown of water produces hydrogen ions within the parietal cell. The hydroxyl ions produced in this reaction mix quickly with carbon dioxide to generate bicarbonate ions. Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that catalyses this process.

      2. In return for chloride, bicarbonate is carried out of the basolateral membrane. The ‘alkaline tide’ occurs when bicarbonate is released into the bloodstream, resulting in a modest rise in blood pH. The parietal cell’s intracellular pH is maintained by this procedure. Conductance channels carry chloride and potassium ions into the lumen of canaliculi.

      3. Through the action of the proton pump, hydrogen ions are pushed out of the cell and into the lumen in exchange for potassium; potassium is thus efficiently recycled.

      4. The canaliculi accumulate osmotically active hydrogen ions, which creates an osmotic gradient across the membrane, allowing water to diffuse outward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A line dividing muscle fibres into sarcomeres

      Explanation:

      Each muscle fibre is divided at regular intervals along its length into sarcomeres separated by Z-lines. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following microbes attaches to host cells by its haemagglutinin antigen:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes attaches to host cells by its haemagglutinin antigen:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influenza virus

      Explanation:

      Hemagglutinin (HA) or Haemagglutinin (BE) is an antigenic glycoprotein found on the surface of the influenza viruses. It is responsible for binding the virus to the cell that is being infected. The name hemagglutinin comes from the protein’s ability to cause red blood cells (erythrocytes) to clump together (agglutinate) in vitro.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient is currently taking is glyceryl trinitrate among other chronic medications. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is currently taking is glyceryl trinitrate among other chronic medications. Which of the following side effects is he LEAST likely to develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.

      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates:

      • Arrhythmias
      • Asthenia
      • Cerebral ischaemia
      • Dizziness
      • Drowsiness
      • Flushing
      • Headache
      • Hypotension
      • Nausea and vomiting
      • Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects.

      Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the factor V Leiden gene mutation, which of the following best describes...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the factor V Leiden gene mutation, which of the following best describes the clinical effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It results in increased levels of activated factor V.

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden gene mutation is the most common inherited cause of an increased risk of venous thrombosis. Activated protein C normally breaks down activated factor V and so should slow the clotting reaction and prolong the APTT, but a mutation in the factor V gene makes factor V less susceptible to cleavage by activated protein C, resulting in increased levels of activated factor V.Heterozygotes for factor V Leiden are at an approximately five- to eight- fold increased risk of venous thrombosis compared to the general population (but only 10% of carriers will develop thrombosis in their lifetime). Homozygotes have a 30 – 140-fold increased risk. The incidence of factor V Leiden in patients with venous thrombosis is approximately 20 – 40%. It does not increase the risk of arterial thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 33 year old lady with a known nut allergy was having dinner...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady with a known nut allergy was having dinner at a Thai restaurant. She suddenly complained of lip and tongue swelling and difficulty breathing and is brought to ED by ambulance with suspected anaphylaxis. She received intramuscular adrenaline in the ambulance.

      The most appropriate doses of the second line treatments for anaphylaxis are which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg chlorphenamine and 200 mg hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Second line drugs to reduce the severity and duration of anaphylactic symptoms are intravenous or intramuscular chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone. The recommended dose is 10 mg chlorpheniramine and 200 mg hydrocortisone in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with a foot drop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve often referred to as the common fibular nerve, is a major nerve that innervates the lower extremity. It is one of the two major branches off the sciatic nerve and receives fibres from the posterior divisions of L4 through S2 nerve roots. The common peroneal nerve separates from the sciatic nerve in the distal posterior thigh proximal to the popliteal fossa. After branching off of the sciatic nerve, it continues down the thigh, running posteroinferior to the biceps femoris muscle, and crosses laterally to the head of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle through the posterior intermuscular septum. The nerve then curves around the fibular neck before dividing into two branches, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) and the deep peroneal nerve (DPN). The common peroneal nerve does not have any motor innervation before dividing; however, it provides sensory innervation to the lateral leg via the lateral sural nerve.

      The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. These two nerves are essential in the eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the foot, respectively. The superficial and deep peroneal nerves provide both motor and sensory innervation.

      The most common presentation with common peroneal nerve injury or palsy is acute foot drop, although symptoms may be progressive and can include sensory loss or pain. Weakness in foot eversion may occur if the superficial peroneal nerve component is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound is conducted, and a big gallstone is discovered. The radiologist who performs the scan speaks with you about the physiology of the gallbladder and biliary tract.

      During a 24-hour period, how much bile does the gallbladder produce?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 400-800 ml

      Explanation:

      The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is produced by the liver. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated. The breakdown of fats into fatty acids, the removal of waste materials, and cholesterol homeostasis are all crucial functions of bile.

      Bile is created on a constant basis, however it is only necessary after a meal has been consumed. The elimination of water and ions concentrates bile in the gallbladder, which is subsequently stored for later use. Food induces the release of the hormone cholecystokinin from the duodenum, the contraction of the gallbladder, and the relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. The bile then enters the duodenum.

      Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:

      Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.

      Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC).

      Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression.

      The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.

      Explanation:

      Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.
      – Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.
      – Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.
      – Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.
      – Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.
      – Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.
      – Avoid sharing pillows and towels.
      – It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school.
      – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis D is TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis D is TRUE:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can only be transmitted with, or to somebody who is infected with, Hepatitis B.

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis D virus (HDV) is an RNA virus that was discovered in 1977 and is structurally unrelated to the hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV), and hepatitis C (HCV) viruses. HDV causes a unique infection that requires the assistance of HBV viral particles to replicate and infect hepatocytes. Its clinical course is varied and ranges from acute, self-limited infection to acute, fulminant liver failure. Chronic liver infection can lead to end-stage liver disease and associated complications (including accelerated fibrosis, liver decompensation, and hepatocellular carcinoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is typically caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propylene glycol overdose

      Explanation:

      Causes of a raised anion gap acidosis can be remember using the mnemonic MUDPILES:
      -Methanol
      -Uraemia (in renal failure)
      -Diabetic ketoacidosis
      -Propylene glycol overdose
      -Infection/Iron overdose/Isoniazid/Inborn errors of metabolism
      -Lactic acidosis
      -Ethylene glycol overdose
      -Salicylate overdose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver damage peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion.

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting are seen on examination, and patient denies presence of itching of the eye. All his observations are normal, he has no fever and is otherwise well.

      Which of these is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of red eye is conjunctivitis. It is caused by inflammation of the conjunctiva which can be infective or allergic and accounts for about 35% of all eye problems presenting to general practice.

      Viral conjunctivitis is commonly caused by adenoviruses and it is the most common infectious conjunctivitis.

      The common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus.

      The clinical features of infective conjunctivitis include:
      Acute onset of conjunctival erythema
      Feeling ‘grittiness’, ‘foreign body’ or ‘burning’ sensation in the eye.
      Watering and discharge which may cause transient blurring of vision

      The discharge for viral conjunctivitis is less than that of bacterial conjunctivitis and usually watery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of Legionnaires' disease:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.

      The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:
      Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 days
      Cough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)
      Pleuritic chest pain
      Haemoptysis
      Headache
      Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
      Anorexia

      Legionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.

      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.
      Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.
      Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:...

    Incorrect

    • The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The middles of the shafts of the ribs moving upwards and laterally

      Explanation:

      Because the middles of the shafts of the ribs are lower than either the anterior or posterior end, elevation of the ribs also moves the middles of the shafts laterally. This ‘bucket handle’ upwards and lateral movement increases the lateral dimensions of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Your consultant decides to use ketamine for a patient requiring procedural sedation in...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant decides to use ketamine for a patient requiring procedural sedation in the Emergency Department. At what receptor does ketamine primarily act:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor

      Explanation:

      In contrast to most other anaesthetic agents, ketamine is a NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor antagonist. It is a non-competitive antagonist of the calcium-ion channel in the NMDA receptor. It further inhibits the NMDA-receptor by binding to its phencyclidine binding site. Ketamine also acts at other receptors as an opioid receptor agonist (analgesic effects), as an muscarinic anticholinergic receptor antagonist (antimuscarinic effects) and by blocking fast sodium channels (local anaesthetic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Regarding water and electrolyte absorption in the small intestine, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding water and electrolyte absorption in the small intestine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+ enters the cell across the apical membrane against its concentration gradient by both membrane channels and transporter protein mechanisms.

      Explanation:

      As the contents of the intestine are isotonic with body fluids and mostly have the same concentration of the major electrolytes, their absorption is active. Water cannot be moved directly, but follows osmotic gradients set up by the transport of ions, primarily mediated by the sodium pump.Na+/K+ ATPase located on the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cells pumps three Na+ ions from the cell in exchange for two K+ ions, against their respective concentration gradients. This leads to a low intracellular concentration of Na+ and a high intracellular concentration of K+. The low intracellular concentration of Na+ ensures a movement of Na+ from the intestinal contents into the cell down its concentration gradient by both membrane channels and transporter protein mechanisms. Na+ is then rapidly pumped again by the basolateral sodium pump. K+ leaves the cell across the basolateral membrane down its concentration gradient linked to an outward movement of Cl- against its concentration gradient (Cl- having entered the cell across the luminal membrane down its concentration gradient).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus longus.
      Peroneus longus receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing in facial nerve palsy is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion.

      Explanation:

      In facial nerve palsy, LMN damage will involve the forehead and there will be an inability to close the eyes due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi or raise the eyebrows due to paralysis of the occipitofrontalis muscle.
      UMN damage causes sparing of the forehead as the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles have bilateral cortical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure....

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dopamine infusion is necessary.

      Dopamine primarily acts on which of the following receptors at low doses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine receptors

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Below is a summary of the mechanisms and effects of various inotropic agents:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia. The chief resident asks him to identify ONE feature that will most support acute leukaemia diagnosis in contrast to chronic leukaemia.

      Which one of the following options will he pick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient is a child

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is more common in children than chronic leukaemias, which generally occur in adults. Bone marrow failure occurs early on in the course of the disease in acute leukaemias, and there is the massive proliferation of undifferentiated cells with functioning cells being crowded out. Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in both acute and chronic forms of leukaemia and is not a differentiating feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts for around 50% of body weight. This can increase to nearly 80% of cardiac output during exercise. Skeletal muscle circulation is highly controlled and has a number of specialized adaptations as a result of this high degree of disparity during exercise, in combination with the diversity in the size of skeletal muscle around the body.

      What is the primary mechanism for boosting skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic hyperaemia

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscle, blood flow is closely related to metabolic rate. Due to the contraction of precapillary sphincters, most capillaries are blocked off from the rest of the circulation at rest and are not perfused. This causes an increase in vascular tone and vessel constriction. As metabolic activity rises, this develops redundancy in the system, allowing it to cope with greater demand. During exercise, metabolic hyperaemia, which is induced by the release of K+, CO2, and adenosine, recruits capillaries. Sympathetic vasoconstriction in the active muscles is overridden by this. Simultaneously, blood flow in non-working muscles is restricted, preserving cardiac output. During exercise, muscle contractions pump blood through the venous system, raising the pressure differential between arterioles and venules and boosting blood flow via capillaries.

      Capillary angiogenesis is evident when muscles are used repeatedly (e.g. endurance training). It is a long-term effect, not a quick fix for increased blood flow.

      The local partial pressure of alveolar oxygen is the primary intrinsic control of pulmonary blood flow (pAO2). Low pAO2 promotes arteriole vasoconstriction and vice versa. The hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflex allows blood flow to be diverted away from poorly ventilated alveoli and towards well-ventilated alveoli in order to maximize gaseous exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this...

    Incorrect

    • A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this patient, which of the following volumes for functional residual capacity is considered a normal result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.0 L

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. In a 70 kg, average-sized male, a normal functional residual capacity is approximately 2100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and intermittent fevers. Thick and thin films are sent to the lab and a diagnosis is made of malaria. The patient is started on treatment but his condition deteriorates and he develops jaundice, renal failure and haemoglobinuria.
      Which of the following is the MOST likely causative organism? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is an infectious disease transmitted by female of theAnophelesgenus of mosquito. It is a parasitic infection caused by the genusPlasmodium. Five species are recognized as causing disease in humans;Plasmodium falciparum,Plasmodium ovale,Plasmodium vivax,Plasmodium malariaeandPlasmodium knowlesi.
      The classic symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, a cyclical occurrence of a cold phase, where the patient experiences intense chills, a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot and finally a sweating stage, where the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely. On examination the patient may show signs of anaemia, jaundice and have hepatosplenomegaly without evidence of lymphadenopathy.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious form and is responsible for most deaths. Severe or complicated malaria is suggested by the presence of impaired consciousness, seizures, hypoglycaemia, anaemia, renal impairment, respiratory distress and spontaneous bleeding.
      Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely type in this case in view of the presentation.
      Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of blackwater fever, which is caused byPlasmodium falciparum. An autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine causes haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice and renal failure. This can be fatal.
      The benign malarias: P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale are usually treated with chloroquine. A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection. Artesunate is the drug treatment of choice for Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Quinine can still be used where artesunate is not available. Often combination therapy with drugs such as doxycycline or fansidar is also required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following is most true of the sinoatrial node: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most true of the sinoatrial node:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequency of depolarisation is increased by sympathetic stimulation.

      Explanation:

      Cardiac myocyte contraction is not dependent on an external nerve supply but instead the heart generates its own rhythm, demonstrating inherent rhythmicity. The heartbeat is initiated by spontaneous depolarisation of the sinoatrial node (SAN), a region of specialised myocytes in the right atrium close to the coronary sinus, at a rate of 100-110 beats/min. This intrinsic rhythm is primarily influenced by autonomic nerves, with vagal influences being dominant over sympathetic influences at rest. This vagal tone reduces the resting heart rate down to 60-80 beats/min. To increase heart rate, the autonomic nervous system increases sympathetic outflow to the SAN, with concurrent inhibition of vagal tone. These changes mean the pacemaker potential more rapidly reaches the threshold for action potential generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for sepsis.

      Which of these antibiotics is most likely to have been used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.

      Two of its most notable side effects are reversible nephrotoxicity(caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells, which causes acute tubular necrosis) and hearing loss (caused by damage to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear).

      Both side effects are dose-related and occur commonly in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling off the monkey bars. Witnesses of the accident reported that, when the patient fell, he hit his right hand on a bar and a loud thump was heard. On examination, the hand is oedematous, tender and erythematous. On ultrasound, a rupture of the flexor carpi ulnaris is noted.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the flexor carpi ulnaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts to adduct the hand at the wrist joint

      Explanation:

      Flexor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle located in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the superficial flexors of the forearm, along with pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis. Flexor carpi ulnaris is the most medial of the superficial flexors.

      Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is from the brachial plexus via the ulnar nerve (C7-T1).

      Flexor carpi ulnaris receives its arterial blood supply via three different routes. Proximally, a branch of the posterior ulnar recurrent artery supplies the muscle as it passes between the humeral and ulnar heads. Branches of the ulnar artery supply the middle and distal parts of the muscle, with an accessory supply also present distally via the inferior ulnar collateral artery.

      Due to its position and direction in the forearm, flexor carpi ulnaris can move the hand sideways as well as flexing it. Contracting with flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris produces flexion of the hand at the wrist joint. However, when it contracts alongside the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle in the posterior compartment, their counteracting forces produce adduction of the hand at the wrist, otherwise known as ulnar deviation or ulnar flexion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman diagnosed with hyperthyroidism has her T 4 levels grossly elevated and she is started on carbimazole.

      A release of which of the following from the hypothalamus is inhibited by increase in T4 levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      A negative feedback mechanism involving the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis controls the release of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream.

      When metabolic rate is low or serum T3 and/or T4 levels are decrease, this triggers the secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      TRH goes to the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

      An increased serum level of T3 and T4 inhibits the release of TRH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Of the antiemetics, cyclizine is most commonly associated with acute dystonic reactions.

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine acts by inhibiting histamine pathways and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist which acts both peripherally in the GI tract and centrally within the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine-D2 receptor antagonist and acts centrally by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are both commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction. Cyclizine may rarely cause extrapyramidal effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was put on low molecular weight heparin for suspected DVT and was scheduled for an ultrasound after the weekend, arrives at the emergency department with significant hematemesis. Which of the following medications can be used as a heparin reversal agent:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protamine sulfate

      Explanation:

      The management of bleeding in a patient receiving heparin depends upon the location and severity of bleeding, the underlying thromboembolic risk, and the current aPTT (for heparin) or anti-factor Xa activity (for LMW heparin). As an example, a patient with minor skin bleeding in the setting of a mechanical heart valve (high thromboembolic risk) and a therapeutic aPTT may continue heparin therapy, whereas a patient with major intracerebral bleeding in the setting of venous thromboembolism several months prior who is receiving heparin bridging perioperatively may require immediate heparin discontinuation and reversal with protamine sulphate. If haemorrhage occurs it is usually sufficient to withdraw unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin, but if rapid reversal of the effects of the heparin is required, protamine sulphate is a specific antidote (but only partially reverses the effects of low molecular weight heparins). Clinician judgment and early involvement of the appropriate consulting specialists is advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following increases the tendency for oedema to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following increases the tendency for oedema to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased venous pressure

      Explanation:

      When more fluid is filtered out of the capillaries than can be returned to the circulation by the lymphatics, oedema occurs. Changes that increase capillary hydrostatic pressure or decrease plasma oncotic pressure will increase filtration.
      Arteriolar constriction reduces hydrostatic capillary pressure and transiently increase absorption of fluid.
      Dehydration increases plasma protein concentration and therefore increases plasma oncotic pressure and absorption. Capillary hydrostatic pressure and filtration are increased when there is increased venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Act as antigen receptors on T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Antibodies:
      Neutralise toxins and prevent attachment of pathogens
      Target, opsonise or agglutinate (clump together) antigens for phagocytosis
      Activate the complement cascade (leading to lysis or opsonisation of the pathogen)
      Act as antigen receptors on B lymphocytes
      Activate antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity by natural killer (NK) cells or T cytotoxic cells
      Provide mucosal immunity (IgA-mediated)
      Stimulate degranulation of mast cells (IgE and IgG mediated)
      Provide passive immunity to the newborn (through transplacental passage of IgG and secretion of IgA in breast milk)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori.

      Which of the following types of cancer is mostly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      H. pylori is recognized as a major cause of type B gastritis, a chronic condition formerly associated primarily with stress and chemical irritants. In addition, the strong association between long-term H. pylori infection and gastric cancer has raised more questions regarding the clinical significance of this organism. There is speculation that long-term H. pylori infection resulting in chronic gastritis is an important risk factor for gastric carcinoma resulting in H. pylori being classified as a carcinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cortisol inhibits release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary.

      Explanation:

      Anterior pituitary hormones are released under the control of hypothalamic releasing or inhibiting hormones originating from small neurons with their cell bodies in the hypothalamus and released into the blood at the median eminence. These hypothalamic hormones are transported directly to the anterior pituitary via hypophyseal portal vessels. The anterior pituitary hormones (and the hormones released by their target organs) inhibit further release of hypothalamic and anterior pituitary hormones by negative feedback mechanisms e.g. cortisol inhibits the release of ACTH. Prolactin release from the anterior pituitary is inhibited by dopamine.The posterior pituitary is really a direct extension of the hypothalamus. Oxytocin and ADH are manufactured in the cell bodies of large neurons in the hypothalamus and are transported down the axons of these cells to their terminals on capillaries originating from the inferior hypophyseal artery within the posterior pituitary gland. ADH release is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms based on plasma osmolality and blood volume, oxytocin however is involved in positive feedback mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed