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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a benefit of low molecular weight heparin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a benefit of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) over unfractionated heparin therapy:

      Your Answer: It has a lower associated risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.

      Correct Answer: Its effects can be rapidly and completely reversed with protamine sulfate.

      Explanation:

      Advantages of LMWHGreater ability to inhibit factor Xa directly, interacting less with platelets and so may have a lesser tendency to cause bleedingGreater bioavailability and longer half-life in plasma making once daily subcutaneous administration possibleMore predictable dose response avoiding the need for routine anticoagulant monitoringLower associated risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia or of osteoporosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-II receptor blockers are a useful alternative in patients who cannot tolerate ACE-inhibitors due a persistent cough.

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in patients of Afro-Caribbean descent who may respond less well; calcium channel blockers are first line for hypertension in these patients. ACE inhibitors have a role in the management of diabetic nephropathy. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnant women. ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin; this is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Blocking ACE also diminishes the breakdown of the potent vasodilator bradykinin which is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers do not have this effect, therefore they are useful alternative for patients who have to discontinue an ACE inhibitor because of persistent cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture?

      Your Answer: Superior rectus

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus

      Explanation:

      A blowout fracture is an isolated fracture of the orbital walls without compromise of the orbital rims. The common mechanisms are falls, high-velocity ball-related sports, traffic accidents, and interpersonal violence.

      The frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoid, zygomatic, and lacrimal bones form the bony structures of the orbit. Medially, the maxillary and the lacrimal bone form the lacrimal fossa. Together with the lamina papyracea of the ethmoid bone, they form the medial wall. The sphenoid bone forms the posterior wall and houses the orbital canal. Lateral to the orbital canal lies the superior orbital fissure housing cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI. The zygomatic bone forms the lateral wall. Superior and inferior borders are the frontal and maxillary bones. Located around the globe of the eye and attached to it are 6 extraocular muscles; the 4 rectus muscles and the superior and inferior oblique muscles. The fat and connective tissue around the globe help to reduce the pressure exerted by the extraocular muscles.

      The goal of treatment is to restore aesthetics and physiological function. The problem with orbital blowout fractures is that the volume of the orbit can be increased, resulting in enophthalmos and hypoglobus. In addition, the orbital tissue and inferior rectus muscle can become trapped by the bony fragments leading to diplopia, limitation of gaze, and tethering. Finally, the orbital injury can lead to retinal oedema, hyphema, and significant loss of vision.

      While some cases may be managed with conservative care, others may require some type of surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding control of hospital acquired infection (HAI), which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding control of hospital acquired infection (HAI), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Autoclaving is a method of disinfection.

      Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent.

      Explanation:

      Chlorhexidine is an anti-staphylococcal agent. Cleaning is the removal of foreign material from areas or objects to a point at which they are visually free from debris.  Disinfection is the reduction in the number of infectious particles. Isopropyl alcohol is not effective against C. difficile spores. Autoclaving is a method of sterilisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.
      Which of the following is NOT an action of the gluteus maximus muscle? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Raising the trunk from a flexed position

      Correct Answer: Hip abduction

      Explanation:

      Gluteus maximus is the main extensor muscle of the hip and assists with lateral rotation of the thigh at the hip joint. It also acts as a hip adductor, steadies the thigh, and assists in raising the trunk from a flexed position.
      Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The big toe of a 59-year-old female is red, hot, and swollen. The patient is...

    Incorrect

    • The big toe of a 59-year-old female is red, hot, and swollen. The patient is diagnosed with acute gout. You intend to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID). Her husband was diagnosed with a peptic ulcer, and she is apprehensive about the potential adverse effects of NSAIDs.

      Which of the following NSAIDs has the lowest chance of causing side effects?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) have slight differences in anti-inflammatory activity, but there is a lot of diversity in individual response and tolerance to these treatments. Approximately 60% of patients will respond to any NSAID; those who do not respond to one may well respond to another. Pain relief begins soon after the first dose, and a full analgesic effect should be achieved within a week, whereas an anti-inflammatory effect may take up to three weeks to achieve (or to be clinically assessable). If the desired results are not reached within these time frames, another NSAID should be attempted.

      By inhibiting the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase, NSAIDs limit the generation of prostaglandins. They differ in their selectivity for inhibiting various types of cyclo-oxygenase; selective inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase-2 is linked to reduced gastrointestinal discomfort. Susceptibility to gastrointestinal effects is influenced by a number of different parameters, and an NSAID should be chosen based on the frequency of side effects.
      Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic propionic acid derivative. Although it has fewer side effects than other non-selective NSAIDs, its anti-inflammatory properties are less effective. For rheumatoid arthritis, daily doses of 1.6 to 2.4 g are required, and it is contraindicated for illnesses characterized by inflammation, such as acute gout.

      Because it combines strong efficacy with a low incidence of adverse effects, Naproxen is one of the top choices. It is more likely to cause negative effects than ibuprofen.
      Similar to ibuprofen, ketoprofen and diclofenac have anti-inflammatory characteristics, however they have additional negative effects.

      Indomethacin has a similar or better effect to naproxen, however it comes with a lot of side effects, such as headaches, dizziness, and gastrointestinal problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent palpitations for the past two days. She has a good haemodynamic balance. An ECG is performed, which reveals that she has atrial flutter. The patient is examined by a cardiology registrar, who recommends using a 'rate control' strategy while she waits for cardioversion.

      Which of the drugs listed below is the best fit for this strategy?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      In atrial flutter, ventricular rate control is usually used as a stopgap measure until sinus rhythm can be restored. A beta-blocker (such as bisoprolol), diltiazem, or verapamil can be used to lower the heart rate.

      Electrical cardioversion, pharmacological cardioversion, or catheter ablation can all be used to restore sinus rhythm. Cardioversion should not be attempted until the patient has been fully anticoagulated for at least three weeks if the duration of atrial flutter is unknown or has lasted for more than 48 hours. Emergency electrical cardioversion is the treatment of choice when there is an acute presentation with haemodynamic compromise. For the treatment of recurrent atrial flutter, catheter ablation is preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella infection.
    Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella infections...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella infection.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella infections is true?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis is a common cause of nocosomial infection in the U.K.

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella spp are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Klebsiellais a genus of non-motile,Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteriawith a prominent polysaccharide-based capsule. They are routinely found in the nose, mouth and gastrointestinal tract as normal flora, however, they can also behave as opportunistic pathogens.
      Infections with Klebsiella spp. areusually nosocomial. They are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), urinary tract infection, wound infection and bacteraemia. Outbreaks of infections with Klebsiellaspp. in high-dependency units have been described and are associated with septicaemia and high mortality rates. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors forKlebsiellainfections.
      Primary pneumonia withKlebsiella pneumoniaeis a rare,severe, community-acquired infection associated with a poor outcome.
      Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis causes a progressive granulomatous infection of the nasal passages and surrounding mucous membranes. This infection is mainly seen in the tropics.
      Klebsiella ozanae is a recognised cause of chronic bronchiectasis.
      Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics including penicillins. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated property. Agents with high intrinsic activity againstKlebsiellapneumoniaeshould be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (e.g cefotaxime), carbapenems (e.g. imipenem), aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin), and quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin). These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics.
      Species with ESBLs (Extended spectrum beta-lactamase) are resistant to penicillins and also cephalosporins such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone
      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency room with a severe case of asthma....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency room with a severe case of asthma. When she doesn't seem to be improving after initial treatment, you decide to start an aminophylline infusion.

      From the options below, which is Aminophylline's main mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibition

      Explanation:

      Theophylline and Ethylenediamine are combined in a 2:1 ratio to form Aminophylline. Its solubility is improved by the addition of Ethylenediamine. It has a lower potency and a shorter duration of action than Theophylline.
      It is used to treat the following conditions:
      Heart failure
      It is used to treat the following conditions:
      COPD
      Bradycardias

      Aminophylline has the following properties:
      Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
      Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.
      It has slight positive inotropic and chronotropic effects, increasing cardiac output and decreasing systemic vascular resistance, lowering arterial blood pressure. It has been used historically in the treatment of refractory heart failure and is indicated by the current ALS guidelines as a substitute treatment for bradycardia.

      The daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, divided into 2-3 doses. For severe asthma or COPD, a loading dosage of 5 mg/kg over 10-20 minutes is given, followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. The therapeutic range is small (10-20 microgram/ml), hence assessments of aminophylline plasma concentrations are useful during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic heart disease and heart failure. You decide to add a loop diuretic to her current drug regime to control the oedema. Which of the following is a contraindication to using a loop diuretic?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Anuria

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:

      • Furosemide
      • Bumetanide
      • Torsemide
      • Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      The contra-indications to the use of loop diuretics are:
      1. Anuria
      2. Comatose and precomatose states associated with liver cirrhosis
      3. Renal failure due to nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic drugs
      4. Severe hypokalaemia
      5. Severe hyponatremia
      6. History of hypersensitivity to furosemide, bumetanide, or torsemide (or sulphonamides)

      The following conditions or states are not contraindications, but loop diuretics needs to be used cautiously in these conditions:
      1. Diabetes (but hyperglycaemia less likely than with thiazides)
      2. Gout
      3. Hypotension (correct before initiation of treatment)
      4. Hypovolaemia (Correct before initiation of treatment)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department....

    Correct

    • An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department. When you look over his meds, you notice that he is taking Theophylline to help with his asthma.

      Which of the following medicines should you NOT prescribe?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor that raises theophylline levels in the blood. As a result, co-prescribing theophylline should be avoided.

      The medicines that typically impact theophylline’s half-life and plasma concentration are listed in the table below:
      Drugs that increase the levels of theophylline in the blood
      Drugs that lower theophylline levels in the blood
      Calcium channel blockers e.g. Verapamil
      Fluconazole
      Cimetidine
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbital
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle...

    Correct

    • The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old lady has suffered a serious brain injury. Her uvula has deviated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady has suffered a serious brain injury. Her uvula has deviated to the right, according to inspection. Which of the following nerves is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Right vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Left vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      When the vagus nerve is damaged, the soft palate is paralyzed and the uvula is shifted away from the affected side. The vagus nerve innervates the uvulae muscle, which forms the uvula’s core. If only one side is innervated, contraction of the active muscle will draw the uvula towards it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is most likely the cause of oedema and erythema of the arm in a patient who underwent modified radical mastectomy and radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Axillary lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Arm oedema is one of the sequelae after breast cancer surgery and radiation therapy. Arm oedema in the breast cancer patient is caused by interruption of the axillary lymphatic system by surgery or radiation therapy, which results in the accumulation of fluid in subcutaneous tissue in the arm, with decreased distensibility of tissue around the joints and increased weight of the extremity. Chronic inflammatory changes result in both subcutaneous and lymph vessel fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of microcytic anaemia and of any anaemia worldwide is iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Most patients present with painless asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, with cervical nodes involved most commonly.

      Explanation:

      Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body’s germ-fighting network. They are a group of diseases that are caused by malignant lymphocytes. These malignant cells accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue, giving rise to the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy.
      They can be subdivided into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) which are characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).
      Characteristics of HL include:
      1. can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults,
      2. almost 2:1 male predominance.
      3. presents with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes.
      4. cervical node involvement in 60-70% of cases,
      5. axillary node involvement in 10-15%
      6. inguinal node involvement in 6-12%.
      7. modest splenomegaly during the course of the disease in 50% of patients
      8. may occasionally have liver enlargement
      9. bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease.
      Approximately 85% of patients are cured, but the prognosis depends on age, stage and histology.
      Two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL are alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man has recently been on antibiotics for a chest infection. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has recently been on antibiotics for a chest infection. He suffers from COPD and is currently on Seretide inhalers, salbutamol, and Phyllocontin continus. Since commencing the antibiotics, he has developed nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.

      Which of the following antibiotics has he MOST LIKELY been on for his chest infection?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continues contains aminophylline, a bronchodilator used in the management of asthma and COPD.

      The index patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity. This may have been triggered by the antibiotic he took. Macrolide antibiotics, like erythromycin and quinolone antibiotics, like ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, increases the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.

      Factors that enhance theophylline clearance include cigarette smoking, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rifampin.
      Medications that inhibit clearance include ethanol, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, verapamil, propranolol, ticlopidine, tacrine, allopurinol, and cimetidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before initiating treatment with Glyceryl nitrate, you examine the patient and find a murmur. The patient reveals that he has a heart valve disorder, and you immediately put a hold on the GTN order.

      Which of the following valve disorders is an absolute contraindication to the use of GTN?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Nitro-glycerine (NTG) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis), acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, hypertension
      2. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) – chronic angina pectoris (treatment)
      3. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis)

      The nitrate drugs cause vasodilation via the action of nitric oxide.

      The contraindications to the use of nitrate are the following:
      1. Allergy to nitrates
      2. Concomitant use of phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibitors such as tadalafil and sildenafil
      3. Right ventricular infarction
      4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      5. Cardiac tamponade
      6. Constrictive pericarditis
      7. Hypotensive conditions
      8. Hypovolaemia
      9. Marked anaemia
      10. Mitral stenosis
      11. Raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral haemorrhage or head trauma
      12. Toxic pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate overdose of verapamil tablets, which he is prescribed for a heart condition.

      What is verapamil's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Beta-2 adrenergic receptor blockade

      Correct Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The standard ABC approach should be used to resuscitate all patients as needed. If life-threatening toxicity is expected, intubation and ventilation should be considered early on. If hypotension and shock are developing, early invasive blood pressure monitoring is recommended.

      The primary goal of specific treatments is to support the cardiovascular system. These are some of them:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Give up to 20 mL of crystalloid per kilogramme of body weight.

      2. Calcium supplementation
      This can be a good way to raise blood pressure and heart rate temporarily.
      via central venous access: 10% calcium gluconate 60 mL IV (0.6-1.0 mL/kg in children) or 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV (0.2 mL/kg in children)
      Boluses can be given up to three times in a row.
      To keep serum calcium >2.0 mEq/L, consider a calcium infusion.

      3. Atropine: 0.6 mg every 2 minutes up to 1.8 mg is an option, but it is often ineffective.

      4. HIET (high-dose insulin-euglycemic therapy):
      The role of HIET in the step-by-step management of cardiovascular toxicity has changed.

      5. Vasoactive infusions:
      This was once thought to be a last-ditch measure, but it is now widely recommended that it be used sooner rather than later.
      Insulin with a short half-life 50 mL of 50 percent glucose IV bolus plus 1 U/kg bolus (unless marked hyperglycaemia present)
      Short-acting insulin/dextrose infusions should be continued.
      Glucose should be checked every 20 minutes for the first hour, then hourly after that.
      Regularly check potassium levels and replace if they fall below 2.5 mmol/L.
      Titrate catecholamines to effect (inotropy and chronotropy); options include dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline infusions.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Use 50-100 mEq sodium bicarbonate (0.5-1.0 mEq/kg in children) in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

      7. Cardiac pacing: It can be difficult to achieve electrical capture, and it may not improve overall perfusion.
      Bypass AV blockade with ventricular pacing, which is usually done at a rate of less than 60 beats per minute.

      8. Intralipid transport
      Calcium channel blockers are lipid-soluble agents, so they should be used in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The enzyme protein gastric lipase is responsible for the breakdown of lipids in...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme protein gastric lipase is responsible for the breakdown of lipids in the stomach.

      Which of the following cell types secretes gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Correct Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric lipase, commonly known as LIPF, is an acidic lipase released by gastric chief cells, which are found deep within the stomach lining’s mucosal layer. It’s an enzymatic protein that’s in charge of fat digestion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Angiotensin II acts to cause all but which one of the following effects:...

    Incorrect

    • Angiotensin II acts to cause all but which one of the following effects:

      Your Answer: Directly increase Na + reabsorption from the proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Inhibit release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II acts to:
      Stimulate release of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex (which in turn acts to increase sodium reabsorption)
      Cause systemic vasoconstriction
      Cause vasoconstriction of the renal arterioles (predominant efferent effect thus intraglomerular pressure is stable or increased, thereby tending to maintain or even raise the GFR)
      Directly increase Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters)
      Stimulate synthesis and release of ADH from the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary respectively
      Stimulate the sensation of thirst
      Potentiate sympathetic activity (positive feedback)
      Inhibit renin production by granular cells (negative feedback)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man, who was feeling unwell after his return from a business...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man, who was feeling unwell after his return from a business trip, was diagnosed with a disease that is known to be transmitted by a vector.

      Among the following microorganisms, which of the following has a mode of transmission of being vector-borne?

      Your Answer: Trepenoma pallidum

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum is a parasite that is vector-borne which is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.

      Bordetella pertussis is transmitted through the respiratory tract, via respiratory droplets or direct contact with infectious secretions.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via inhalation of infected respiratory droplets.

      HIV may be transmitted via sexual contact, vertical transmission from mothers to infants, and among injection drug users sharing infected needles, as well as through transfusion of infected blood products.

      Treponema pallidum transmission normally occurs during direct sexual contact with an individual who has an active primary or secondary syphilitic lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than...

    Correct

    • A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than two weeks. He was born and raised in the Middle East. His mother claims he has been tired and has complained of various 'aches and pains.' On examination, you find splenomegaly and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. His legs and arms are covered in petechiae.

      In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      ALL is the most common leukaemia in children, with a peak incidence between the ages of 2 and 5.
      ALL has a wide range of clinical symptoms, but many children present with an acute illness that resembles coryza or a viral infection. ALL also has the following features:
      Weakness and sluggishness all over
      Muscle, joint, and bone pain that isn’t specific
      Anaemia
      Petechiae and unexplained bruising
      Oedema
      Lymphadenopathy
      Hepatosplenomegaly

      The following are typical features of a full blood count in patients with ALL:
      Anaemia (normocytic or macrocytic)
      Leukopenia affects about half of the patients (WCC 4 x 109/l).
      Around 25% of patients have leucocytosis (WCC > 10 x 109/l).
      Around 25% of patients have hyperleukocytosis (WCC > 50 x 109/l).
      Thrombocytopaenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which among the following antibacterial regimens is considered the most appropriate to prescribe...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following antibacterial regimens is considered the most appropriate to prescribe in a patient presenting with clinical signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease?

      Your Answer: Cefriaxone plus ofloxacin plus doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline plus metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The endocervix is the most common site of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in women. Symptoms of infection, when present, include dysuria, cervical discharge, and lower abdominal pain. However, 50% of cases in women may be asymptomatic leading to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which may cause sterility, ectopic pregnancy, or perihepatitis.

      PID is also known as Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is defined as an inflammation of the upper genital tract due to an infection in women. The disease affects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically an ascending infection, spreading from the lower genital tract.

      The recommended intramuscular or oral regimens for PID are as follows:

      Ceftriaxone at 500 mg IM in a single dose (for persons weighing ≥150 kg, administer 1 g of ceftriaxone); plus doxycycline at 100 mg PO BID for 14 days with metronidazole at 500 mg PO BID for 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone.

      Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias.

      Side effects include:
      1. pulmonary fibrosis
      2. blue discolouration of the skin
      3. phototoxicity
      4. corneal deposits
      5. hepatic necrosis
      6. thyroid dysfunction
      7. sleep disturbances
      8. peripheral neuropathy.

      Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:

      Your Answer: Increased activity of interferon

      Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation

      Explanation:

      Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is an example of a non-parametric test: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a non-parametric test:

      Your Answer: Kruskal-Wallis test

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All of the above answers are non-parametric tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers over the past three months. On documentation of the fever, it is noted that the fever increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern over a 1-2 week period. After the appropriate investigations, a diagnosis of Pel-Ebstein fever is made.

      Which ONE of the following conditions is most likely to cause this patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      The release of cytokines from Reed-Sternberg cells can cause fever in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma, which increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern of 1 to 2 weeks. This is called Pel-Ebstein or Ebstein-Cardarelli fever, specifically seen in Hodgkin lymphoma. The fever is always high grade and can reach 40 degrees or higher.

      Cyclical fever in other conditions is common but is not termed as Pel-Ebstein fever. This term is reserved only with Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (4/12) 33%
Anatomy (2/6) 33%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/4) 0%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/6) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Haematology (3/4) 75%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Passmed