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Question 1
Correct
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In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:
Your Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement of her blood glucose level is done and found to be grossly elevated. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. A fixed rate insulin infusion is given as part of her treatment.
Which of these is an action of insulin?Your Answer: Stimulates lipogenesis
Explanation:Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Its actions can be broadly divided into:
Lipid metabolism
Protein metabolism and
Carbohydrate metabolismFor lipid metabolism, insulin:
Stimulates lipogenesis
Inhibits lipolysis by lipaseFor carbohydrate metabolism, insulin:
Decreases gluconeogenesis
Stimulates glycolysis
Promotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue
Promotes glycogen storage
Increases glycogenesis
Decreases glycogenolysisProtein metabolism:
Stimulates protein synthesis
Accelerates net formation of protein
Stimulates amino acid uptake
Inhibits protein degradation
Inhibits amino acid conversion to glucose -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man, who was feeling unwell after his return from a business trip, was diagnosed with a disease that is known to be transmitted by a vector.
Among the following microorganisms, which of the following has a mode of transmission of being vector-borne?Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Plasmodium falciparum is a parasite that is vector-borne which is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.
Bordetella pertussis is transmitted through the respiratory tract, via respiratory droplets or direct contact with infectious secretions.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via inhalation of infected respiratory droplets.
HIV may be transmitted via sexual contact, vertical transmission from mothers to infants, and among injection drug users sharing infected needles, as well as through transfusion of infected blood products.
Treponema pallidum transmission normally occurs during direct sexual contact with an individual who has an active primary or secondary syphilitic lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the hip joint?
Your Answer: Quadriceps femoris, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
Correct Answer: Hamstrings and gluteus maximus
Explanation:For hip extension, the gluteus maximus and hamstring muscles work together. To compensate for gluteus maximus weakness, the hamstring frequently acts as the primary hip extensor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of antihistamines:
Your Answer: Dry mouth
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Common side effects of antihistamines may include:
Anticholinergic effects (blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention)
Headache
Gastrointestinal disturbances
Psychomotor impairment (sedation, dizziness and loss of appetite)
These side effects are significantly reduced with second-generation agents. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which JVP waveform correlates to atrial systole?
Your Answer: The c wave
Correct Answer: The a wave
Explanation:JVP Waveform in Cardiac Cycle Physiology: a wave Right atrial contraction causes atrial systole (end diastole). the c wave During right isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium, resulting in isovolumetric contraction (early systole). descent by x Rapid ventricular ejection (mid systole) is caused by a combination of right atrial relaxation, tricuspid valve downward movement during right ventricular contraction, and blood ejection from both ventricles. the v-wave Ventricular ejection and isovolumetric relaxation (late systole) occur as a result of venous return filling the right atrium. y lineage Ventricular filling occurs when the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow rapidly from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline should be used in digital nerve blocks to create a bloodless field.
Explanation:It is not advisable to give adrenaline/epinephrine with a local anaesthetic injection in digits or appendages because of the risk of ischaemic necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The semilunar valves are open.
Explanation:At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, the whole of the heart is relaxed. The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open because the atrial pressure is still slightly greater than the ventricular pressure. The semilunar valves are closed, as the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta is greater than the ventricular pressures. The cycle starts when the sinoatrial node (SAN) initiates atrial systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+ ions.
Explanation:CO2generated in the tissues and water combine to form carbonic acid which readily dissociates to form HCO3-and H+. The first part of this reaction is very slow in plasma, but is accelerated dramatically by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase present in red blood cells. Bicarbonate is therefore formed preferentially in red cells, from which it freely diffuses down its concentration gradient into plasma where it is transported to the lungs. The red cell membrane is impermeable to H+ions which remain in the cell. To maintain electroneutrality, Cl-ions diffuse into the cell to replace HCO3-, an effect known as the chloride shift. Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+, allowing the reaction to continue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department 48 hours after being discharged from the hospital after a two-week stay for sepsis treatment. She has fever, productive cough with thick green sputum, and shortness of breath. An X-ray shows left lower lobe pneumonia. Which of the bacteria listed below is more likely to be the causative agent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), or nosocomial pneumonia, is a lower respiratory infection that was not incubating at the time of hospital admission and that presents clinically 2 or more days after hospitalization. Pneumonia that presents sooner should be regarded as community acquired pneumonia. VAP refers to nosocomial pneumonia that develops among patients on ventilators. Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that presents more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
Common bacteria involved in hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) include the following [10] :
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-susceptible S aureus (MSSA) and methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Escherichia coli -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Elevation of the mandible is produced primarily by which of the following muscles:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid
Explanation:Elevation of the mandible is generated by the temporalis, masseter and medial pterygoid muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the osmolality in the various parts of the Henle Loop?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The osmolality of fluid in the descending loop equals that of the peritubular fluid
Explanation:The Loop of Henle connects the proximal tubule to the distal convoluted tubule and lies parallel to the collecting ducts. It consists of three major segments, including the descending thin limb, the ascending thin limb, and the ascending thick limb. These segments are differentiated based on structure, anatomic location, and function.
The main function of the loop of Henle is to recover water and sodium chloride from urine. When fluid enters the loop of Henle, it has an osmolality of approximately 300 mOsm, and the main solute is sodium.
The thin descending limb has a high water permeability but a low ion permeability. Because it lacks solute transporters, it cannot reabsorb sodium. Aquaporin 1 (AQP1) channels are used to passively absorb water in this area. The peritubular fluid becomes increasingly concentrated as the loop descends into the medulla, causing water to osmose out of the tubule. The tubular fluid in this area now equalizes to the osmolality of the peritubular fluid, to a maximum of approximately 1200 mOsm in a long medullary loop of Henle and 600 mOsm in a short cortical loop of Henle.
The thin ascending limb is highly permeable to ions and impermeable to water. It allows the passive movement of sodium, chloride, and urea down their concentration gradients, so urea enters the tubule and sodium and chloride leave. Reabsorption occurs paracellularly due to the difference in osmolarity between the tubule and the interstitium.
The thick ascending limb is also impermeable to water but actively transports sodium, potassium, and chloride out of the tubular fluid. The osmolality of the tubular fluid is lower compared to the surrounding peritubular fluid. This area is water impermeable. This results in tubular fluid leaving the loop of Henle with an osmolality of approximately 100 mOsm, which is lower than the osmolality of the fluid entering the loop, and urea being the solute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia.
Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Regarding calcium handling by the kidneys, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activated vitamin D upregulates Ca 2+ ATPase pumps in the distal tubule.
Explanation:Calcium that is not protein bound is freely filtered in the glomerulus, and there is reabsorption along the nephron.About 70% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.About 20% is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.This reabsorption is mainly passive and paracellular and driven by sodium reabsorption. Sodium reabsorption causes water reabsorption, which raises tubular calcium concentration, causing calcium to diffuse out of the tubules. The positive lumen potential also encourages calcium to leave the tubule.About 5 – 10% is reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule.Less than 0.5% is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts.Calcium reabsorption in the distal nephron is active and transcellular and is the major target for hormonal control.Calcium homeostasis is primarily controlled by three hormones: parathyroid hormone, activated vitamin D and calcitonin.Parathyroid hormone acts on the kidneys to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane (and to decrease phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule).Activated vitamin D acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump (and to increase phosphate reabsorption).Calcitonin acts to inhibit renal reabsorption of calcium (and phosphate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to the regional lymph nodes.
The lymph from the testes will drain to which of the following nodes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes
Explanation:Testes are retroperitoneal organs and its lymphatic drainage is to the lumbar and para-aortic nodes along the lumbar vertebrae.
The scrotum is the one which drains into the nearby superficial inguinal nodes.
The glans penis and clitoris drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Damage to this nerve affects the flexor digitorum longus.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:Like all muscles in the deep posterior compartment of the leg, flexor digitorum longus muscle is innervated by branches of the tibial nerve (root value L5, S1 and S2) which is a branch of sciatic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Your consultant decides to use ketamine for a patient requiring procedural sedation in the Emergency Department. At what receptor does ketamine primarily act:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NMDA receptor
Explanation:In contrast to most other anaesthetic agents, ketamine is a NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor antagonist. It is a non-competitive antagonist of the calcium-ion channel in the NMDA receptor. It further inhibits the NMDA-receptor by binding to its phencyclidine binding site. Ketamine also acts at other receptors as an opioid receptor agonist (analgesic effects), as an muscarinic anticholinergic receptor antagonist (antimuscarinic effects) and by blocking fast sodium channels (local anaesthetic effect).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Given a patient with dislocation of the patella, which muscle is the most important to address during rehabilitation to prevent recurrent dislocation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vastus medialis
Explanation:Patellar dislocation is a disabling musculoskeletal disorder which predominantly affects younger people who are engaged in multidirectional physically active pursuits. Conservative (non-operative) treatment is the treatment of choice for FTPD (first time patellar dislocation). Quadriceps strengthening exercises are considered one of the principal management aims for people following FTPD. A United Kingdom (UK) survey of physiotherapy practice has shown that quadriceps strengthening and specific-vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) or distal vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening or recruitment exercises were two of the most frequently used interventions for this population. Specific VM exercises are favoured in some quarters based on the assumption that the VM has an important role in preventing excessive lateral patellar translation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be increased in which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emphysema
Explanation:Factors increasing FRC:
Emphysema
Air trapping in asthma
Ageing (due to loss of elastic properties)
Increasing height of patient -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of megaloblastic anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised reticulocyte count
Explanation:The LDH level is usually markedly increased in severe megaloblastic anaemia. Reticulocyte counts are inappropriately low, representing a lack of production of RBCs due to massive intramedullary haemolysis. These findings are characteristics of ineffective haematopoiesis that occurs in megaloblastic anaemia as well as in other disorders such as thalassemia major.
The common feature in megaloblastosis is a defect in DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells. To a lesser extent, RNA and protein synthesis are impaired. Unbalanced cell growth and impaired cell division occur since nuclear maturation is arrested. More mature RBC precursors are destroyed in the bone marrow prior to entering the bloodstream (intramedullary haemolysis). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is typically used in diabetes mellitus as the cut-off to define hypoglycaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: < 4.0 mmol/L
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia is defined as plasma glucose of less than 4 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for a patient with a knee injury
Which of these statements about NSAIDs is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Side effects are less commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen
Explanation:Most NSAIDs act as non-selective inhibitors of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX). They inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes.
Only about 60% of patients will respond to any given NSAID.
It can take 21 days of treatment for a clinically appreciable reduction in inflammation to be apparent. If no improvement is seen after 21 days, the NSAID should be changed.
The use of NSAIDs in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy is associated with the following risks: delayed onset of labour, premature closure of ductus arteriosus and foetal kernicterus.
Side effects are lowest in Ibuprofen and highest in indomethacin. so side effects are more commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications may lessen warfarin's anticoagulant effect:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin will decrease the level or effect of warfarin by affecting hepatic/intestinal enzyme CYP3A4 metabolism.
Metronidazole will increase the level or effect of warfarin by affecting hepatic enzyme CYP2C9/10 metabolism.
NSAIDs, when given with Warfarin, increase anticoagulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding bronchiolitis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation and increased peribronchial markings.
Explanation:Acute bronchiolitis is caused most commonly by respiratory syncytial virus, occurring mostly in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Children with bronchiolitis are febrile and tachypnoeic with a dry cough and difficulty feeding. Examination may reveal chest hyperinflation, respiratory distress, wheezing and fine end-inspiratory crepitations. Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation and increased peribronchial markings (although CXR should only performed if there is diagnostic uncertainty or an atypical course). Treatment is usually supportive, aerosolized ribavirin is reserved for severely ill or immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is most likely associated with an anterior shoulder dislocation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:In an anterior dislocation, the arm is an abducted and externally rotated position. In the externally rotated position, the posterosuperior aspect of the humeral head abuts and drives through the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid rim. This can damage the humeral head, glenoid labrum, or both. An associated humeral head compression fracture is described as a Hill Sach’s lesion. If large enough, it can lead to locked dislocations that may require open reduction. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous structure that rings the circumference of the glenoid fossa. Bankart lesions are injuries to the anteroinferior glenoid labrum complex and the most common capsulolabral injury. A bony Bankart lesion refers to an associated fracture of the glenoid rim. These capsulolabral lesions are risk factors for recurrent dislocation.
Axillary nerve injury is identified in about 42% of acute anterior shoulder dislocations. Nerve transection is rare, and traction injuries are more common. Arterial injury has also been described. The subclavian artery becomes the axillary artery after passing the first rib. The distal portion of the axillary artery is anatomically fixed and, therefore, susceptible to injury in anterior dislocations. Ischemic injury, including pseudoaneurysm and arterial laceration, is rare but carries marked morbidity if not quickly identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of lymphocyte clonal proliferation. Which of the following statements about CLL is CORRECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is most commonly discovered as an incidental finding
Explanation:CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukaemia) is the most common type of chronic lymphoid leukaemia, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60 and 80. It is the most common type of leukaemia in Europe and the United States, but it is less common elsewhere.
The CLL tumour cell is a mature B-cell with low immunoglobulin surface expression (IgM or IgD). The average age at diagnosis is 72 years, with only 15% of cases occurring before the age of 50.
The male-to-female ratio is about 2:1. Over 80% of cases are identified by the results of a routine blood test, which is usually performed for another reason.
Lymphocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and normochromic normocytic anaemia are common laboratory findings. Aspiration of bone marrow reveals up to 95% lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a car accident and, as a result, suffers from left arm paralysis. The following muscles are affected by the injury, except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:Damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb’s palsy.
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, thus you would not expect this muscle to be impacted.
The trapezius is a muscle that runs from the base of the neck across the shoulders and into the centre of the back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Surface area of the absorptive surface in the small intestine is increased by all but which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teniae coli
Explanation:Factors increasing the surface area include:The small intestine is very long – about 5 m in length.The inner wall of the small intestine is covered by numerous folds of mucous membrane called plicae circulares.The lining of the small intestine is folded into many finger-like projections called villi.The surface of the villi is covered with a layer of epithelial cells which, in turn, have many small projections called microvilli that project towards the lumen of the intestine (forming the brush border).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a case-control study used to identify past exposure to a risk factor in patients with a disease:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can directly measure absolute and relative risk of a disease
Explanation:Advantages:relatively quickrelatively cheap and easy to performparticularly suitable for studying associations between an exposure and an outcome when the outcome is uncommon or if the outcome occurs decades after exposurea wide range of risk factors can be investigated in each studyDisadvantages:subject to recall biasunlike in a whole population study, absolute risk cannot be quantifiedtemporal relationship between exposure and outcome can be difficult to establishunsuitable for rare risk factorsprone to confounding
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Study Methodology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an ECG change typically associated with hyperkalaemia:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wide QRS complex
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
