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  • Question 1 - A 37-year-old man presents with breathlessness on exertion and dry cough, fever for...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man presents with breathlessness on exertion and dry cough, fever for the past 2 days and bilateral pleuritic chest pain.

      He had been diagnosed with HIV and commenced on HAART but due to side effects, his compliance has been poor over the last few months.

      On examination you note scattered crackles and wheeze bilaterally, cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy, and oral thrush. At rest his oxygen saturation is 97% but this drops to 87% on walking. There is perihilar fluffy shadowing seen on his chest X-ray.

      Which of these organisms is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      All of the organisms listed above can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals but the most likely cause in this patient is Pneumocystis jirovecii.

      It is a leading AIDS-defining infection in HIV-infected individuals and causes opportunistic infection in immunocompromised individuals. HIV patients with a CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 are more prone.

      The clinical features of pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii are:
      Fever, chest pain, cough (usually non-productive), exertional dyspnoea, tachypnoea, crackles and wheeze.
      Desaturation on exertion is a very sensitive sign of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

      Chest X-ray can show perihilar fluffy shadowing (as is seen in this case) but can also be normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      130.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following statements about leukotrienes as chemical mediators of the acute inflammatory response...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements about leukotrienes as chemical mediators of the acute inflammatory response are all true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: They are synthesized in mast cells

      Correct Answer: They decrease vascular permeability

      Explanation:

      Leukotrienes increases (not decrease) vascular permeability during acute inflammation.

      All the other statements are correct

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding anti-D immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: It is used to prevent a rhesus-positive mother from forming antibodies against foetal rhesus-negative cells.

      Correct Answer: It is administered as part of routine antenatal care for rhesus-negative mothers.

      Explanation:

      In all non-sensitised pregnant women who are RhD-negative, it is recommended that routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis is offered. Even if there is previous anti-D prophylaxis, use of routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis should be given for a sensitising event early in the same pregnancy. Postpartum anti-D prophylaxis should also be given even if there has been previous routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis or antenatal anti-D prophylaxis for a sensitising event in the same pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the maximum strength of a scar versus unwounded skin: ...

    Correct

    • What is the maximum strength of a scar versus unwounded skin:

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      Basic healing is complete by 5-10 days but maximal wound strength (80% of normal) may take 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:

      Your Answer: Skin necrosis

      Correct Answer: Neutropenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of warfarin:
      The most common adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding

      Other common adverse effects of warfarin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice, hepatic dysfunction, pancreatitis, pyrexia, alopecia, purpura, and rash

      Skin necrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of warfarin; treatment with warfarin should be stopped if warfarin related skin necrosis is suspected

      Calciphylaxis is a rare, but a very serious condition that causes vascular calcification and cutaneous necrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where does angiotensin II directly act on the renal nephron: ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does angiotensin II directly act on the renal nephron:

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II acts to directly increase Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech,...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech, is unable to do the heel-shin test, and has nystagmus. The following signs are most likely related to damage to which of the following areas:

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar injury causes delayed and disorganized motions. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities sway and stagger.

      Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, the inability to judge distance and when to stop, dysmetria, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements or adiadochokinesia, movement tremors, staggering, wide-based walking or ataxic gait, a proclivity to fall, weak muscles or hypotonia, slurred speech or ataxic dysarthria, and abnormal eye movements or nystagmus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the mechanism of action of chlorphenamine: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of chlorphenamine:

      Your Answer: Histamine agonist

      Correct Answer: H1-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Chlorphenamine is a competitive inhibitor at the H1-receptor (an antihistamine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is...

    Incorrect

    • Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is its estimated osmolality?

      Your Answer: 100 mOsm

      Correct Answer: 300 mOsm

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henle connects the proximal tubule to the distal convoluted tubule and lies parallel to the collecting ducts. It is consists of three major segments, the thin descending limb, the thin ascending limb, and the thick ascending limb.

      The segments are differentiated based on structure, anatomic location, and function. The main action of the loop of Henle is to recover water and sodium chloride from urine. The liquid entering the loop of Henle is a solution of salt, urea, and other substances traversed along by the proximal convoluted tubule, from which most of the dissolved components are needed by the body, particularly glucose, amino acids, and sodium bicarbonate that have been reabsorbed into the blood.

      This fluid is isotonic. Isotonic fluids generally have an osmolality ranging from 270 to 310 mOsm/L. With the fluid that enters the loop of Henle, it is estimated to be 300 mOsm/L. However, after passing the loop, fluid entering the distal tubule is hypotonic to plasma since it has been diluted during its passage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane:

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct crosses from left to right hand side

      Correct Answer: Bifurcation of the trachea

      Explanation:

      A way to help remember the structures transected by the transverse thoracic plane is CLAPTRAP:
      C: cardiac plexus
      L: ligamentum arteriosum
      A: aortic arch (inner concavity)
      P: pulmonary trunk
      T: tracheal bifurcation (carina)
      R: right-to-left movement of the thoracic duct (posterior to the oesophagus)
      A: azygos vein drains into superior vena cava
      P: pre-vertebral fascia and pre-tracheal fascia end

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation over heel

      Explanation:

      Damage to the deep fibular nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle, with resultant foot drop with high-stepping gait, loss of toe extension, weakness of foot inversion and loss of sensation over the webspace between the 1st and 2nd toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:

      Your Answer: Factor IXa-Va complex

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease:

      Your Answer: Chickenpox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen during respiration?

      Your Answer: Alveolar PO 2 > Inhaled PO 2

      Correct Answer: Exhaled PO 2 > Alveolar PO 2

      Explanation:

      Because of humidification, inspired PO2 in the airways is less than inhaled PO2.
      Because of gas exchange, alveolar PO2 is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.
      Because of mixing with anatomical dead space (air that has not taken part in gas exchange, exhaled PO2 is greater than alveolar O2, and therefore that has relatively higher PO2 on the way out, but is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.
      Typical values for a resting young healthy male (in kPa) are shown below:
      -Inhaled air: PO221.2, PCO20.0
      -Inspired air in airways (after humidification): PO219.9, PCO20.0
      -Alveolar air (after equilibrium with pulmonary capillaries): PO213.3, PCO25.3
      -Exhaled air (after mixing with anatomical dead space air): PO215.5, PCO24.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 71-year-old woman is treated with co-amoxiclav for a chest infection but she...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman is treated with co-amoxiclav for a chest infection but she returns 1 week later. Her chest infection has resolved but she developed a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea and abdominal cramps. You suspect Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD).

      ONE of these statements is true concerning this diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile is present in the bowel of 25% of healthy adults

      Correct Answer: The gold standard for the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile colitis is cytotoxin assay

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      Alcohol hand gel is not effective against Clostridium Difficile spores. Hand washing with soap and water is very essential for healthcare workers who come in contact with it.

      Currently, the gold standard for the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile colitis is cytotoxin assay. Stool culture to detect Clostridium difficile is not specific for pathogenic strains, is expensive and therefore not specific for a diagnosis of CDAD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You examine a child who has been admitted to the paediatric emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a child who has been admitted to the paediatric emergency department with a flu-like illness. His parents tell you that he was born with an inborn defect of steroid metabolism and that he was treated for it with hormone replacement therapy.

      Which of the following is classified as a steroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be classified into three categories depending on their chemical composition: amines, peptides (and proteins), and steroids. Amines are made up of single amino acids (for example, tyrosine), peptide hormones are made up of peptides (or proteins), and steroid hormones are made up of cholesterol.
      The table below lists some prominent instances of each of these three hormone classes:

      1. Peptide hormone:
      Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
      Prolactin
      Vasopressin
      Oxytocin
      Glucagon
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Cholecystokinin

      2. Amine hormone:
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Dopamine

      3. Steroid hormone:
      Mineralocorticoids (e.g. aldosterone)
      Glucocorticoids (e.g. cortisol)
      Progestogens
      Androgens
      Oestrogens

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      187.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Pancreatic acinar digestive enzyme secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic acinar digestive enzyme secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      Exocrine pancreatic secretion is controlled by:
      Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous components
      Sympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretion
      Secretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cells
      Cholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cells
      Somatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cells
      Gastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Digoxin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Intermittent complete heart block

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is contraindicated in:Supraventricular arrhythmias associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndromeVentricular tachycardia or fibrillationHeart conduction problems e.g. second degree or intermittent complete heart blockHypertrophic cardiomyopathy (unless concomitant atrial fibrillation and heart failure but should be used with caution)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation.

      Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks.

      Acute inflammation
      Rapid onset (minutes to hours)
      Quick resolution (usually days)

      Chronic inflammation
      May last weeks, months, or years

      There are five cardinal signs of inflammation:
      1) Pain
      2) Redness
      3) Warmth
      4) Oedema
      5) Loss of function

      During acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:
      1) Margination
      Neutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination
      2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium
      3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)
      4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cells

      Bradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.

      Neutrophils dominate early (<2 days)
      – Many in the bloodstream
      – Attach firmly to adhesion molecules
      – Apoptosis after 24-48hrs
      Monocytes/macrophages dominate late (>2 days)
      – Live longer
      – Replicate in tissues

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding propofol, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding propofol, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Propofol decreases the ventilatory response to carbon dioxide.

      Correct Answer: A lower induction dose of propofol is required in children.

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients have a reduced volume of distribution and slower clearance of the drug. They are therefore more sensitive to the effects of propofol and the drug wears off more slowly. They need less of the drug, which should be injected slowly, monitoring its effect on the patient. The opposite is true in children, who need larger doses of propofol. This is particularly so in children under three years of age. Propofol is not recommended for induction of anaesthesia in children under one month of age or for maintenance of anaesthesia in children under three years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off...

    Incorrect

    • When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off from school?

      Your Answer: Immediately after resolution of swelling

      Correct Answer: 5 days from onset of swelling

      Explanation:

      To avoid the spread of infection, infected patients should be isolated. Patients should avoid going to school, childcare, or job for five days after the swelling has occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following does heparin activate?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III.

      Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding antimuscarinic antispasmodics, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding antimuscarinic antispasmodics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide is a very effective antispasmodic.

      Correct Answer: They are contraindicated in paralytic ileus.

      Explanation:

      Antimuscarinics are contraindicated in paralytic ileus. Antimuscarinics reduce intestinal motility by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and relaxing smooth muscle. Hyoscine butylbromide is advocated as a gastrointestinal antispasmodic, but it is poorly absorbed and thus has limited clinical utility. Antimuscarinics cause a reduction in bronchial secretions (they can be used to this effect in palliative patients). Antispasmodics are occasionally of value in treating abdominal cramp associated with diarrhoea but they should not be used for primary treatment. Antispasmodics should be avoided in young children with gastroenteritis because they are rarely effective and have troublesome side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Giemsa-stained blood film microscopy is typically used for the diagnosis of which of...

    Incorrect

    • Giemsa-stained blood film microscopy is typically used for the diagnosis of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Cholera

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Giemsa-stained blood film microscopy can be used to identify malarial parasites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old female presents with painful wrist following a fall while skating. X-rays...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female presents with painful wrist following a fall while skating. X-rays shows fracture of the ulna.

      The initial phase of bone healing is?

      Your Answer: Haematoma at the fracture site

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhage occurs into the fracture site from the ruptured vessels in the bone marrow and those supplying the periosteum immediately after fracture. This hematoma formation is the first phase of bone healing.

      The 4 stages of bone healing are:
      Haematoma at the fracture site (provides a framework for healing)
      Callus formation
      Lamellar bone formation
      Remodelling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.

      Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Reduced free triiodothyronine (T 3 )

      Correct Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.

      Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.

      TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus....

    Correct

    • A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus. Today, he presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain in the emergency department. His blood sugar is drawn, which is markedly elevated to 7 mmol/L. Quick ABGs are drawn, which show metabolic acidosis. You diagnose the patient to be suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and immediately commence its treatment protocol in which insulin is also administered.

      Out of the following, which parameter is MOST likely to change due to initiating insulin?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Diabetes ketoacidosis is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus. Insulin is administered to achieve euglycemia, and crystalloids or colloidal solution is administered to achieve euvolemia and euelectrolytaemia.

      Potassium levels severely fluctuate during the treatment of DKA, hypokalaemia being more common. Insulin promotes the cell to take up potassium from the extracellular space via increased sodium-potassium pump activity.

      It is important to monitor potassium levels during the treatment of DKA regularly. It is widely suggested that the normal saline shall be used for initial resuscitation, and once the potassium level is retrieved, the patient can be started on potassium replacement should the serum potassium level be between 3.3 and 4.5 mmol/L
      If potassium levels fall below 3.3 mmol/l, insulin administration may need to be interrupted to correct the hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemias are usually caused by deletion of a beta globin gene.

      Correct Answer: Screening for thalassaemia in pregnancy is offered to all pregnant women.

      Explanation:

      Beta thalassemia is caused by mutations in one or both of the beta globin genes. Alpha thalassemia is caused by a deletion or mutation (less commonly) in one or more of the four alpha globin gene copies. β-thalassaemia is more common in the Mediterranean region while α-thalassaemia is more common in the Far East.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following...

    Correct

    • The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Both the medial and lateral pterygoids are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are...

    Incorrect

    • You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are discussing heart sounds and the cardiac cycle. Which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle occurs immediately after the aortic valve closes:

      Your Answer: Ventricular ejection

      Correct Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

      Explanation:

      Immediately after the closure of the semilunar valves, the ventricles rapidly relax and ventricular pressure decreases rapidly but the AV valves remain closed as initially the ventricular pressure is still greater than atrial pressure. This is isovolumetric relaxation. Atrial pressure continues to rise because of venous return, with the v wave of the JVP waveform peaking during this phase. Rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase causes thethird heart sound, which is normal in children but, in adults, is associated with disease such as ventricular dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/4) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/2) 0%
General Pathology (2/3) 67%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Immunoglobulins And Vaccines (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (3/9) 33%
Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/3) 0%
Physiology (0/8) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Passmed