00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Approximately what percentage of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately what percentage of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 60 - 70%

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate is freely filtered at the glomerulus. Less than 0.1% of filtered bicarbonate is normally excreted in the urine (if plasma [HCO3-] increases, maximum tubular transport is exceeded and some HCO3-is excreted in urine). About 80% of bicarbonate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. For each H+secreted into the lumen, one Na+and one HCO3-are reabsorbed into the plasma. H+is recycled so there is little net secretion of H+at this stage. A further 10 – 15% of HCO3-is similarly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. In the early distal tubule, H+secretion is predominantly by Na+/H+exchange but more distally, the Na+gradient is insufficient so secretion is via H+ATPase and H+/K+ATPase in intercalated cells, which contain plentiful carbonic acid.

      As secreted H+is derived from CO2, new HCO3-is formed and returns to the blood.H+secretion is proportional to intracellular [H+] which itself is related to extracellular pH. A fall in blood pH will therefore stimulate renal H+secretion. In the proximal tubule secretion of H+serves to reclaim bicarbonate from glomerular filtrate so it is not lost, but in the distal nephron, secretion leads to net acid excretion and generation of new bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Leukaemia has been diagnosed in a 6-year-old child on your list. He comes...

    Incorrect

    • Leukaemia has been diagnosed in a 6-year-old child on your list. He comes to the ER with a complication related to this diagnosis.

      Which type of leukaemia do you think this is?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common childhood cancer that primarily affects children. ALL is most common between the ages of 2 and 4, and it is uncommon in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are: ...

    Correct

    • The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are:

      Your Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      Inversion of the foot is achieved by the tibialis anterior which is innervated by the deep fibular nerves, and the tibialis posterior muscles which is innervated by the tibial nerve respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Factors causing bronchoconstriction:

      • Via muscarinic receptors
      • Parasympathetic stimulation
      • Stimulation of irritant receptors
      • Inflammatory mediators e.g. histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes
      • Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

    Of...

    Correct

    • You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

      Of the following antibacterial drugs, which of them is a protein synthesis inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolides. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and, as a result, inhibit protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered into the infection site as a result.

      Action Mechanisms- Examples:

      Cell wall production is inhibited
      Vancomycin
      Vancomycin
      Cephalosporins

      The function of the cell membrane is disrupted
      Nystatin
      Polymyxins
      Amphotericin B

      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Chloramphenicol
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines

      Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      Rifampicin
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Sulphonamides
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Chief cells of the parathyroid gland

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a peptide hormone synthesised by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands, located immediately behind the thyroid gland. PTH is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma [Ca2+] concentration. PTH acts to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron (by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane) and increase phosphate excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening: ...

    Incorrect

    • During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening:

      Your Answer: Uvula

      Correct Answer: Epiglottis

      Explanation:

      The vocal cords of the larynx are strongly
      approximated, and the larynx is pulled upward
      and anteriorly by the neck muscles. These actions,
      combined with the presence of ligaments that
      prevent upward movement of the epiglottis, cause
      the epiglottis to swing back over the opening
      of the larynx. All these effects acting together
      prevent the passage of food into the nose and
      trachea. Most essential is the tight approximation
      of the vocal cords, but the epiglottis helps to
      prevent food from ever getting as far as the vocal
      cords. Destruction of the vocal cords or of the
      muscles that approximate them can cause
      strangulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An ambulance transports a 23-year-old woman who has taken a witnessed overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 23-year-old woman who has taken a witnessed overdose of her mother's diazepam tablets. She has no significant medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis.

      In this case, what is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE FIRST DRUG TREATMENT?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil IV 20 ÎĽg

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil IV 200 ÎĽg

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that can be helpful in some overdose situations. It works quickly (in less than a minute), but the effects are fleeting, lasting less than an hour. The dose is 200 micrograms every 1-2 minutes with a maximum dose of 3 milligrams per hour.

      Flumazenil should be avoided by patients who are addicted to benzodiazepines or who take tricyclic antidepressants because it can cause withdrawal symptoms. It can cause seizures or cardiac arrest in these situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      132.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 33 year old lady with a known nut allergy was having dinner...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady with a known nut allergy was having dinner at a Thai restaurant. She suddenly complained of lip and tongue swelling and difficulty breathing and is brought to ED by ambulance with suspected anaphylaxis. She received intramuscular adrenaline in the ambulance.

      The most appropriate doses of the second line treatments for anaphylaxis are which of the following?

      Your Answer: 20 chlorphenamine and 300 mg hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: 10 mg chlorphenamine and 200 mg hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Second line drugs to reduce the severity and duration of anaphylactic symptoms are intravenous or intramuscular chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone. The recommended dose is 10 mg chlorpheniramine and 200 mg hydrocortisone in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin:

      Your Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and the resulting inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis results in analgesic, antipyretic and to a lesser extent anti-inflammatory actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought...

    Incorrect

    • Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother. His forearm appears to be deformed, and you believe he has a distal radius fracture. A numerical rating scale is used to assess his pain, and the triage nurse informs you that he is in moderate pain.'

      The RCEM guidance recommends which of the following analgesics for the treatment of moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Intravenous morphine 0.1-0.2 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      According to a 2018 audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the standard of care for children presenting to EDs with fractured limbs has deteriorated, with most patients waiting longer than ever before for pain relief. More than one-tenth of the children who came in with significant pain from a limb fracture received no pain relief at all.

      For all patients, including children, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the United States recommends using the ABCs of pain management:
      A – Ask about pain regularly. Assess pain systematically.
      B – Believe the patient and family in their reports of pain and what relieves it.
      C – Choose pain control options appropriate for the patient, family, and setting.
      D – Deliver interventions in a timely, logical, coordinated fashion.
      E – Empower patients and their families. Enable patients to control their course to the greatest extent possible.

      The RCEM guidelines recommend assessing a child’s pain within 15 minutes of arrival. This is a fundamental requirement. For the assessment of pain in children, a variety of rating scales are available; which one is used depends on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These are some of them:
      Faces of Wong-Baker Scale for assessing pain
      Scale of numerical evaluation
      The behavioural scale is a scale that measures how people behave.

      The RCEM has provided the following visual guide:
      The RCEM has established the following guidelines for when patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia:
      100% within 60 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      75% within 30 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      50% within 20 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.
      Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates
      Arrhythmias
      Asthenia
      Cerebral ischaemia
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Hypotension
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding drug interactions with erythromycin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding drug interactions with erythromycin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Erythromycin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline.

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin decreases plasma levels of warfarin.

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin and clarithromycin inhibit cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin and carbamazepine and may lead to accumulation of these drugs. There is an increased risk of myopathy (due to cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP3A4 inhibition) if erythromycin or clarithromycin is taken with atorvastatin or simvastatin. Erythromycin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline, and theophylline may also reduce absorption of oral erythromycin. All macrolides can prolong the QT-interval and concomitant use of drugs that prolong the QT interval is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      84.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass...

    Correct

    • A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass that protrudes when standing. The patient notes that it is reducible when lying down. On physical examination, there is presence of a cough impulse. The initial assessment is hernia. Further investigation reveals that the mass lies lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.

      Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.

      Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis. You encourage the mother to treat the child at home with oral rehydration therapy (ORT), e.g. dioralyte.

      Out of the following, which statement is FALSE regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer: To prevent dehydration, a child with diarrhoea should drink 200 ml of ORT after each loose stool

      Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      One of the major complications of gastroenteritis is dehydration. Choosing the correct fluid replacement therapy is essential according to a patient’s hydration status.

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) refers to the restitution of water and electrolyte deficits in dehydrated patients using an oral rehydration salt (ORS) solution. It is a fluid replacement strategy that is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries.

      Some characteristics of Oral rehydration solutions are:
      – slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      – contain glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia.
      – also contains essential mineral salts

      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours to treat mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding aspirin at analgesic doses, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding aspirin at analgesic doses, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The increased production of prostaglandins can irritate gastric mucosa.

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in patients with severe heart failure.

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in severe heart failure. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes resulting in decreased production of prostaglandins (which can lead to irritation of the gastric mucosa). The analgesic dose is greater than the antiplatelet dose, and taken orally it has a duration of action of about 4 hours. Clinical features of salicylate toxicity in overdose include hyperventilation, tinnitus, deafness, vasodilatation, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure....

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dopamine infusion is necessary.

      Dopamine primarily acts on which of the following receptors at low doses?

      Your Answer: Beta-2 receptors

      Correct Answer: Dopamine receptors

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Below is a summary of the mechanisms and effects of various inotropic agents:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer: It acts as an agonist to the action of acetylcholine

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Diagnosis is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in the stool.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of tapeworm is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in stool. Humans may be infected by pork or beef tapeworm. Treatment is with praziquantel or niclosamide. Specialist advice should be sought for the management of neurocysticercosis.Iron-deficiency anaemia is typically seen in hookworm infection. Threadworms migrate from the intestine at night to lay eggs on the perianal skin. Mebendazole is first line treatment for threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a red, scaly, itchy rash around her navel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a red, scaly, itchy rash around her navel that occurred after contact with a nickel belt buckle. A diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis is made. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      A type IV hypersensitivity reaction occurred in this patient. Allergic contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction occurring in response to an external stimulus, acting either as an allergen or an irritant, caused by a type IV or delayed hypersensitivity reaction. They usually take several days to develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following study designs is considered the most appropriate to safely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following study designs is considered the most appropriate to safely determine whether an association exists between a well-established, commonly used, anti-hypertensive medication and causing type II diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A case-control study

      Correct Answer: A meta-analysis

      Explanation:

      Evidence-based medicine may be defined as the systematic, quantitative, preferentially experimental approach to obtaining and using medical information. Therefore, meta-analysis, a statistical procedure that integrates the results of several independent studies, plays a central role in evidence-based medicine.

      Meta-analysis is a quantitative, formal, epidemiological study design used to systematically assess previous research studies to derive conclusions about that body of research. Outcomes from a meta-analysis may include a more precise estimate of the effect of treatment or risk factor for disease, or other outcomes, than any individual study contributing to the pooled analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presented to the emergency room complaining of a chest pain that has been going on for the past 12 hours. Upon further investigation, a troponin test was ordered and the results came back negative. He was given a discharge order from the emergency department.

      Which of the following aspects of this test is considered the most significant in the decision made that it was safe to send the patient home?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Correct Answer: Likelihood ratio

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Corticotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      ACTH secretion is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is investigated for recurrent renal stones is discovered to have a markedly elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level.
      Which of the following would stimulate PTH release under normal circumstances? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
      PTH is synthesised by and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands that are located immediately behind the thyroid gland.
      PTH is released in response to the following stimuli:
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration (indirectly by binding to plasma calcium and reducing the calcium concentration)
      PTH release is inhibited by the following factors:
      Normal/increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia
      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic exocrine secretion is controlled by:
      Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous components
      Sympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretion
      Secretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cells
      Cholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cells
      Gastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency causes a hypochromic microcytic anaemia.

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His medical record shows that he was diagnosed with Haemophilia B as a child.

      What is the mode of inheritance of this disease?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of Factor IX causes Haemophilia B, and like the other Haemophilia’s, it has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, affecting males born to carrier mothers.

      Haemophilia B is the second commonest form of haemophilia and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B is similar to haemophilia A but is less severe. You can distinguish the two disorders by specific coagulation factor assays.

      The incidence of Haemophilia B is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A.

      In laboratory findings, you get prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX for Haemophilia B.

      There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - When a person changes from a supine to an upright position, which of...

    Incorrect

    • When a person changes from a supine to an upright position, which of the followingcompensatory mechanismsoccurs:

      Your Answer: Decreased stroke volume

      Correct Answer: Increased contractility

      Explanation:

      On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100 mg of hydrocortisone per day to control this.
      What dose of prednisolone is equivalent to this dose of hydrocortisone? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 50 mg

      Correct Answer: 25 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 25 mg would be equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
      The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:
      Corticosteroid
      Potency relative to hydrocortisone
      Prednisolone
      4 times more potent
      Triamcinolone
      5 times more potent
      Methylprednisolone
      5 times more potent
      Dexamethasone
      25 times more potent

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (3/8) 38%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/3) 0%
Pathology (0/4) 0%
Central Nervous System (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (3/13) 23%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed