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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics.

      His full blood count done (FBC) today shows:
      Hb: 9.1 g/dL
      Plts: 250 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L
      Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L

      However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score.

      Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Correct Answer: Leukemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.

      Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.

      LAP score is high in:
      1. Leukemoid reaction
      2. Infections
      3. Myelofibrosis
      4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
      5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
      6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

      LAP score is low in:
      1. CML
      2. Pernicious anaemia
      3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
      4. Infectious mononucleosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected.

      Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Raised ferritin level

      Correct Answer: Neutrophilia

      Explanation:

      Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination...

    Correct

    • Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?

      Your Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy.

      Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?

      Your Answer: II

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      72.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer: Combination therapy is less likely to result in long term toxicity

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?

      Your Answer: Pre-B phenotype

      Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive

      Explanation:

      Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.

      ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.

      Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.

      Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
      1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
      2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
      3. Age <2 years or >10 years
      4. Male sex
      5. CNS involvement
      6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
      7. non-Caucasian

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30 mg bd for pain relief.

      What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:

      Hb: 8.6 g/dL
      Plts: 42 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 36.4 x 10^9/L

      His blood film report reveals 30% myeloblasts with Auer rods. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following is associated with a good prognosis?

      Your Answer: Translocation between chromosome 9 and 14

      Correct Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17

      Explanation:

      A translocation between chromosome 15 and 17 is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL), which is known to carry a good prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly. The disease has poor prognosis if:

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      APL is an aggressive form of AML. It is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The general age of presentation is less than that in other types of AML (average age is 25 years old). On blood film, abundant Auer rods are seen with myeloperoxidase staining. Thrombocytopaenia or DIC is seen in patients presenting with this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      27.2
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  • Question 9 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago.
      Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol.

      What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive cocci

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan.

      What should be the preferred anticoagulant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.

      Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
      1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
      2. Decrease in protein S
      3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legs

      Management options include:
      1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
      2. Warfarin contraindicated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction.

      His coagulation profile shows:
      Plts: 173 x 10^9/L
      PT: 12.9 secs
      APTT: 84 secs

      Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.

      Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin

      Explanation:

      B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 17 - Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood film

      Explanation:

      Hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood film is suggestive of megaloblastic changes in bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal bleeding and is generally well apart from occasional diarrhoea. She has previously attended a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour and is now brought in by her mother having consumed a number of pills. Her mother has had recurrent venous thromboses, but there is no family history of a bleeding disorder.

      Her full blood count (FBC) is normal, but her coagulation profile shows:
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 60 secs (28-38 secs)
      Prothrombin time (PT): no clot after 120 secs (10-14 secs)
      Fibrinogen: 3.6 g/L (2-4 g/L)

      What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin overdose

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent procoagulants II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant protein C and S. It is highly protein-bound and can be displaced by a wide variety of drugs. It has a half-life of 36-48 hours.

      Bleeding is the major side effect. Easy bruising, as seen in this case, is commonly seen in patients of warfarin overdose. Grossly prolonged PT and lesser increase in APTT may be seen in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing

      Explanation:

      The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:

      1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis

      2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis

      3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis

      4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis.

      What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red cell aplasia

      Explanation:

      Red cell aplasia is commonly associated with thymomas.

      Thymoma is the most common tumour of the anterior mediastinum and is usually detected between the sixth and seventh decades of life. It is associated with myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients), red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis. Compression of airway and cardiac tamponade are the common causes of death in thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF),...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery.

      What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin five days pre-operatively, bridge with LMWH and give vitamin K if INR is still above 3.0 on the evening of operation

      Explanation:

      Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.

      The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes.

      His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL
      WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 212 x 10^9/L
      Na+: 138 mmol/L
      K+: 4.7 mmol/L
      Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L
      Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 104 mmol/L
      Albumin: 38 g/L
      IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0)
      IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0)
      IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5)
      Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past.

      The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass is diagnosed as having Burkitt lymphoma. He is due to start chemotherapy today.

      Which one of the following should be given prior to his chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rasburicase

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is 5-10 times more soluble than uric acid, hence, renal excretion is more effective.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:
      1. Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible.
      2. Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileocaecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV.

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in development of the African form of Burkitt lymphoma and to a lesser extent, the sporadic form.

      Management of the lymphoma is with chemotherapy. This tends to produce a rapid response which may cause TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been smoking for 25 years and has a past history of regular cannabis use. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell laryngeal cancer

      Explanation:

      Progressive hoarseness of the voice is a very typical and early finding in people suspected to have squamous cell laryngeal cancer. Due to mechanical compression, patients might experience dysphagia as well as pain. The ‘lump in the throat sensation is not uncommon too. Haemoptysis might be present, together with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea. Other symptoms consist of constitutional complaints, such as weight loss or fatigue.

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      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS).

      What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 29 - An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance....

    Incorrect

    • An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. He is eager to know its relation to his future health.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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