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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with postoperative bleeding from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with postoperative bleeding from her abdominal wound. Her full blood count (FBC) and blood film showed hyperleukocytosis and the presence of promyelocytes, along with the following:

      Hb: 9.2g/dL
      Plts: 932 x 10^9/L
      INR: 1.4 (Coagulation profile)

      What should be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Give hydroxyurea

      Correct Answer: Give fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The patient has acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) with associated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Although the platelet count is high, platelet function is ineffective.

      Patients may present, as in this case, with severe bleeding, and the most appropriate emergency treatment would be administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22).

      How would you manage the patient at this stage?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics after blood cultures

      Correct Answer: High-dose methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).

      The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      97.9
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  • Question 3 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless.

      What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      244.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample comes out to be B RhD negative.

      You work in the hospital's blood bank and are asked to prepare two units each of red blood cells (RBCs) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). You manage to obtain the RBCs but not the Group B FFP as it is unavailable. Therefore, out of the following, FFP from a donor of which blood group would be best to transfuse?

      Your Answer: O RhD positive

      Correct Answer: AB RhD negative

      Explanation:

      Group AB donors are the universal donors of FFP. This is because they produce neither anti-A nor anti-B antigens in their plasma and are, therefore, compatible with all ABO groups.

      The aforementioned patient’s blood group is B meaning, thereby, she naturally produces anti-A antigens in her plasma and would need to receive plasma that does not have anti-B antigens in it. Hence, she can only receive FFP from donors of group B or AB. Moreover, as she is of childbearing age, she must receive RhD negative blood in order to avoid problems with future pregnancies if her foetus would be RhD positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?

      Your Answer: Increased levels of factor V

      Correct Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C

      Explanation:

      In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.

      Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected.

      Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer: Low phosphate

      Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      736.1
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man having sickle cell anaemia presents with headache, lethargy, and pallor....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man having sickle cell anaemia presents with headache, lethargy, and pallor. His blood count shows: Haemoglobin: 4.6 g/dL Reticulocytes: 3% Infection with parvovirus is suspected. Out of the following, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sequestration crisis

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      Aplastic crisis is characterized by a rapid fall in hemoglobin levels associated with few or no reticulocytes, indicating a failure of the bone marrow to respond to increased cell turnover. Folate deficiency can occur in the setting of chronic hemolytic anemia in some patients unless supplemental folate is taken. Parvovirus (B19) has been associated with bone marrow suppression and subsequent aplastic crisis; other viral infections or severe bacterial infections may also suppress the bone marrow. Treatment of aplastic crisis may be necessary when the hematocrit level becomes dangerously low. Packed red blood cells are given to support an adequate hematocrit until bone marrow suppression is resolved, folate is repleted, and the reticulocyte count improves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      63.8
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint.

      What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.

      The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.

      The other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
      2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
      3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      27.9
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient presents to the urology clinic with a one-month history of passing frank haematuria. Flexible cystoscopy shows a mass of the bladder wall and biopsy reveals transitional cell carcinoma.

      Out of the following, which industry has he most likely worked in?

      Your Answer: Rubber industry

      Correct Answer: Dyestuffs and pigment manufacture

      Explanation:

      Exposure to aniline dyes is a risk factor for transitional cell carcinoma. Aniline dyes are used in dyestuffs and pigment manufacturing.

      The other aforementioned options are ruled out because:
      1. Feed production may expose to aflatoxin (hepatocellular carcinoma).

      2. Being a military personnel may expose to mustard gas (lung cancer).

      3. Rubber industry may expose to nitrosamines (oesophageal and gastric cancer).

      4. Refrigerant production before 1974 may expose to vinyl chloride (hepatic angiosarcoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      21.8
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  • Question 10 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Correct

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      494.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months.

      Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Immature lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

      CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

      Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10-15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      20
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  • Question 12 - A 6-year-old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer: Granulocyte without blast cells

      Correct Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age; a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts; pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.2
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  • Question 13 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of dark urine and fatigue. One day before admission, she developed severe abdominal pain and abdominal distension.

      On examination, she has pallor, jaundice, an enlarged tender liver, and ascites. Her investigations show:
      Hb: 7.9 g/dL
      WCC: 3.2 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 89 x 10^9/L
      MCV: 101 fL
      Peripheral smear: Mild polychromasia
      AST: 144 U/L
      ALT: 130 U/L
      Bilirubin: 54 μmol/L
      Urine hemosiderin: ++
      Urine urobilinogen +

      Abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver, ascites, and absent flow in the hepatic veins.

      Which single test would you request to confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59 expression

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) complicated by acute hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd-Chiari syndrome).

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combination of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      22.3
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  • Question 14 - An 18-year-old boy with a history of bloody diarrhoea and fever, presents with...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old boy with a history of bloody diarrhoea and fever, presents with a skin rash and low urine output. Blood tests and urinalysis reveal increased levels of urea and creatinine and haematuria. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of haemolytic uremic syndrome can include bloody diarrhoea, low urine output, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and general fatigue. Increased values of urea and creatinine are also typical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks....

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks. She has angular stomatitis but no koilonychia. What is the most probable cell type to be seen in her blood film?

      Your Answer: Macrocytes

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency. The anaemia with angular stomatitis is highly suggestive of Vit. B12 or folate deficiency. The absence of koilonychia excludes Iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden.

      Following blood results are obtained:
      Plts: 220 x 10^9/L
      PT: 11 secs
      APTT: 76 secs
      Factor VIIIc activity: Normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      39.5
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  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis.

      Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      39.6
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      83.5
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with haematuria. Cystoscopy is carried out which reveals transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      Occupational exposure to which of the following is a recognised risk factor for bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for bladder cancer are:

      1. Smoking
      2. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry
      3. Exposure to rubber manufacturing
      4. Cyclophosphamides
      5. Schistosomiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      11.9
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  • Question 20 - A 74-year-old patient presents with back pain, pallor and palpitations. Blood exams reveal...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old patient presents with back pain, pallor and palpitations. Blood exams reveal multiple plasma cells in the peripheral smear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma presents with bone pain usually in the back or at the level of the ribs. Pathological fractures are common. The patient usually experiences fatigue, paleness, weakness, dyspnoea and gastro-intestinal complaints such as nausea and constipation. Characteristic for this case is the presence of many plasma cells in the peripheral blood smear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      757.5
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the following, which cancer is least likely to be inherited?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      69.7
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  • Question 22 - A 34-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old patient arrives at the clinic with cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a type of cancer that arises from lymphocytes. There are two main types of lymphoma:
      1. Hodgkin lymphomas, which are characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and
      2. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs), which comprise all other types of lymphoma. NHLs are further classified according to the cell type, i.e., B cells, T cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, and tumour grade.
      Low-grade tumours originate from mature cells that have a slow growth rate and an indolent clinical course. The most common low-grade B-cell lymphoma is follicular lymphoma, while the most common low-grade T-cell lymphomas are the cutaneous T-cell lymphomas such as mycosis fungoides. High-grade tumours, on the other hand, have a rapid growth rate and an aggressive clinical course. Certain subtypes of NHL are more common in children and young adults, such as Burkitt lymphoma.
      There is a variety of treatment options, depending on the type of lymphoma. Generally, treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Limited disease low-grade tumours and high-grade NHL are treated with a curative approach. Advanced, low-grade tumours are treated with a palliative approach in symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      23.8
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her bloods show: Hb: 10.4 g/dL Plts: 278 x...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her bloods show: Hb: 10.4 g/dL Plts: 278 x 10^9/L WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L MCV: 68 fL Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted HbA2: 3.9% What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lead poisoning

      Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Individuals with thalassemia major usually develop symptoms within the first two years of life. These infants may fail to thrive and often have difficulty feeding, tire easily and suffer from severe anemia.

      The infants may also suffer from diarrhea, irritability, recurrent episodes of fever, and other intestinal problems. These children have trouble gaining weight and growing at the rate expected for their age. Other complications include enlarged spleen, heart and liver and misshapen bones.

      In many cases, the symptoms are severe enough to warrant regular blood transfusion to replenish the blood with healthy red blood cells. However, these regular transfusions can lead to a build up of iron in the blood that can damage the heart, liver and endocrine system and chelation therapy may be needed to remove this iron from the body.

      Individuals with beta thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and increased levels of hemoglobin A2. Hemoglobin F is sometimes elevated as well. Individuals with alpha thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and normal levels of hemoglobin A2 and F.

      In thalassemia major, the hemoglobin (Hb) level is usually less than 7 g/dl; the mean corpuscolar volume (MCV) less than 70 fl and the mean corpuscolar Hb (MCH) is over 20 pg.

      In thalassemia intermedia, the hemoglobin level is between 7 and 10 g/dl; the MCV between 50 and 80 fl and MCH between 16 and 24 pg.

      Thalassemia minor is characterized by a reduced MCV and MCH and an increased haemoglobin A2 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      547.2
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has been receiving treatment for prostate cancer. He has complained of pain in his pelvis and, following radiological investigations, is shown to have pelvic metastases. Choose the most appropriate course of investigation for this patient.

      Your Answer: Start syringe driver with diamorphine

      Correct Answer: Palliative radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      The patient could respond well to palliative radiotherapy. This course of action is likely to shrink the cancer and will, therefore, reduce the pain felt. Analgesics should then be used to control the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      184.6
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      9.5
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  • Question 26 - A 71-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea and unsteadiness. She's known to suffer from...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea and unsteadiness. She's known to suffer from epilepsy and is managed on carbamazepine. Blood exams are as follows: MCV=70, Hb=8.5, WBC=2, Neutrophils=1, Platelets=50. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      The results of the blood exam are suggestive of aplastic anaemia which might be secondary to carbamazepine use. The use of antiepileptic’s, in particular carbamazepine and valproate, is associated with a nine fold increased risk of aplastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic Anaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      15.4
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who has been a smoker since she was a teenager has the following blood result: Hgb=19. What hormone should you check?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      An increase in the patient’s haemoglobin tells us that the patient might be having an increased number of red blood cells. Smoking causes raised carboxyhaemoglobin levels and thus hypoxemia. Hypoxemia will increase the erythropoietin levels in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Progesterone receptor-positive tumour

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma.

      Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: History of Epstein Barr virus infection

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      33.6
      Seconds

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Haematology & Oncology (15/30) 50%
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