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  • Question 1 - Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck:

      Your Answer: Investing fascia

      Correct Answer: Prevertebral fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck which has the following boundaries:
      Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
      Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
      Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius
      Base: Middle one third of the clavicle
      Roof: Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
      Floor: The anterolateral portion of prevertebral fascia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain...

    Correct

    • Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain in her pelvis, along the midline starting from the pubic bone in the front to the sacrum at the back?

      Your Answer: Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum

      Explanation:

      The pain could have been caused by the urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina or rectum as it involves the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer: Pectoralis major

      Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Incorrect

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer: Head of the humerus

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?

      Your Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Correct

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the oesophagus. He is to undergo esophagectomy. While mobilizing the oesophagus in the neck, for resection and anastomosis with the stomach tube on the left side, the surgeon must be cautious not to injure a vital structure. Which of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is divided into 3 portions: cervical (part that is in the neck), thoracic portion and the abdominal portion. The cervical part is bordered by the trachea anteriorly and the prevertebral fascia covering the bodies of the 6,7 and 8th vertebra posteriorly. The thoracic duct lies on the left side at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra. The carotid sheath with its contents and lower poles of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland are lateral. The thoracic duct is the structure most likely to be injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed with meralgia parasthetica. The condition was discovered to be caused by the pinching of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Injuries at what spinal levels usually affect this nerve?

      Your Answer: L3, L4

      Correct Answer: L2, L3

      Explanation:

      The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh arises from the dorsal division of the lumbar plexus of the second and the third lumbar nerves (L2 – L3). Spinal injuries at this level are likely to affect the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at...

    Correct

    • A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed

      Explanation:

      The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Correct

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical removal of the gland, which artery is vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a major artery of the head and neck. It arises from the common carotid artery when it splits into the external and internal carotid artery. It supplies blood to the face and neck. The external carotid artery begins opposite the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and, taking a slightly curved course, passes upward and forward and then inclines backward to the space behind the neck of the mandible, where it divides into the superficial temporal and internal maxillary arteries. It rapidly diminishes in size in its course up the neck, owing to the number and large size of the branches given off from it. At its origin, this artery is more superficial and placed nearer the midline than the internal carotid and is contained within the carotid triangle. The external carotid artery is covered by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep fascia and anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid. It is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, by the lingual, ranine, common facial and superior thyroid veins; and by the digastric and stylohyoid; higher up it passes deeply into the substance of the parotid gland, where it lies deep to the facial nerve and the junction of the temporal and internal maxillary veins. It is here that it is in danger during surgery of the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Correct

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen

      Correct Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Correct

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In an anatomy demonstration, the instructor asked one of the medical students to...

    Correct

    • In an anatomy demonstration, the instructor asked one of the medical students to pass his index finger inferior to the root of the left lung. The student notices that his finger is blocked by a structure. Which structure do you think is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary ligament

      Explanation:

      The pulmonary ligament is dual layer of pleura stretching from the inferior part of the hilar reflection toward the diaphragm.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the cavity at the inferior border of the lung where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura.

      The cupola: is part of the pleura that extends superiorly above the first rib and has no association with the root of the lung.

      Inferior vena cava is located in the mediastinum, not near the root of the lung.

      Left pulmonary veins being part of the root of the lung, would not block access to behind the lung. Costomediastinal recess is the part of the pleura where the costal pleura become the mediastinal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Correct

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in: ...

    Correct

    • Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:

      Your Answer: Hyperaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Correct

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Correct

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior...

    Correct

    • A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.

      Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.

      Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Peroneus brevis muscle

      Correct Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle

      Explanation:

      The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.

      These are the compartments and there contents:

      i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels

      ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve

      iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.

      iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Correct Answer: Schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Both the arytenoid muscles and the lateral cricoarytenoid muscles perform this action on...

    Correct

    • Both the arytenoid muscles and the lateral cricoarytenoid muscles perform this action on the glottis:

      Your Answer: Adduction

      Explanation:

      Both the arytenoid and the cricoartenoid muscles close the glottis. The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles extend from the lateral cricoid cartilage to the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage. By rotating the arytenoid cartilages medially, these muscles adduct the vocal cords and thereby close the rima glottidis. The arytenoid muscle adducts or approximates the arytenoid cartilages, and thus closes the aperture of the glottis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify...

    Correct

    • You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?

      Your Answer: Cardiac notch

      Explanation:

      Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)

      The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.

      Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.

      Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.

      Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior...

    Correct

    • A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Production of pain is most likely associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Production of pain is most likely associated with:

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?

      Your Answer: Right bronchus

      Explanation:

      The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.

      The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.

      Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.

      Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Incorrect

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      91.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following structures is not easily palpable? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is not easily palpable?

      Your Answer: Styloid process of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The styloid process is a thin, pointed process that projects antero-inferiorly from the base of the petrous temporal bone. It can vary in length from a short, stubby process to a slender, four to five centimetre rod. It forms from the cranial elements of the second pharyngeal arch. The tympanic plate of the temporal bone ensheathes the base of this process. The pointed, projecting portion of the process provides attachment to the stylohyoid and stylomandibular ligaments, and to three muscles – the styloglossus, stylohyoid, and stylopharyngeus. As the styloid process is covered by the various muscles, it is not easily palpable in live subjects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      299.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Thyroarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except...

    Correct

    • The following structures DO NOT lie between the layers of the mesosalpinx except for the?

      Your Answer: Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Mesosalpinx is the portion of the broad ligament that stretches from the fallopian tube to the ovary and contains the uterine tubes between it’s layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Correct

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      209.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Correct

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - The gluteus medius muscle: ...

    Correct

    • The gluteus medius muscle:

      Your Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Correct

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Left lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      149.2
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The...

    Correct

    • A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.

      The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.

      The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.

      The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      111.7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median...

    Correct

    • Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the last 10 days. He undergoes a CT scan which reveals a lesion in his frontal lobe, which, after a biopsy, is found to be formed by granulation tissue with collagenisation, gliosis and oedema. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic brain abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. In a CT scan, an abscess appears as an oedematous mass with ring enhancement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from ‘bowstringing’ when the hand is extended at the wrist

      Explanation:

      This extensor retinaculum, as the name indicates, holds the tendons of the extensors against the dorsal surface of the distal radius and ulna. Therefore, the correct answer is that it prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons with wrist extension. It forms compartments between it and its bony attachment, and these compartments guide and hold the tendons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Correct

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      971
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:

      Your Answer: Muscle wasting

      Explanation:

      Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following structures, is the area in which the superior cerebral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures, is the area in which the superior cerebral veins drain into?

      Your Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      The superior cerebral veins are predominantly located on the superior aspect of the brain. They are 8 to 12 in number and they drain the lateral, medial and superior aspects of the cerebral hemispheres.

      These veins drain into the superior sagittal sinus, also known as the superior longitudinal sinus – which is located along the attached margin of the falx cerebri.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      221.6
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the...

    Correct

    • The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?

      Your Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Correct

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      122.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?

      Your Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Correct

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Correct

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Correct

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      137.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased...

    Correct

    • When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)?

      Your Answer: Supplementary motor area

      Explanation:

      Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) increases in the superior speech cortex (supplementary motor area) during periods of silent counting, whereas speaking aloud will do so in the motor cortex and medial temporal lobe, along with the superior speech cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in...

    Correct

    • Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)

      Explanation:

      Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy...

    Correct

    • An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy is complicated when a tear develops in a large venous structure in the posterior mediastinum that empties into the superior vena cava. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is formed by the union of the right subcostal veins and the ascending lumbar veins at the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra. It enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus to ascend in the posterior mediastinum and arching over the right main bronchus posteriorly at the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava before it pierces the pericardium.

      The basilic vein is a vein on the medial aspect of the arm that ascends to become the axillary vein.

      The cephalic vein is also a vein of the arm.

      The external jugular and brachiocephalic vein are not in the posterior mediastinum.

      The median cubital vein is found in the cubital fossa of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused...

    Incorrect

    • Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?

      Your Answer: Superior cerebellar

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar

      Explanation:

      The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Regarding the long head of the biceps femoris, which of the following is...

    Correct

    • Regarding the long head of the biceps femoris, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: It crosses two joints

      Explanation:

      The long head of the biceps femoris arises from the lower and inner impression on the back of the tuberosity of the ischium. It inserts with the short head in an aponeurosis which becomes a tendon and this tendon is inserted into the lateral side of the head of the fibula and the lateral condyle of the tibia, thus crossing two joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the...

    Incorrect

    • Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Correct

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Correct

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Correct

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Correct

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed...

    Incorrect

    • A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?

      Your Answer: Flexion

      Correct Answer: Abduction

      Explanation:

      In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to...

    Correct

    • Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to the prostatic plexus responsible for an erection. From which nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Erection is a function of the parasympathetic nerves. Of the nerves listed, only the pelvic splanchnic nerves have parasympathetic fibres that innervate the smooth muscles and glands of the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Superficial temporal

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Correct

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      160.2
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is most likely to be irritated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal

      Explanation:

      Tracheobronchial lymph nodes are located at the bifurcation of the trachea and are in three groups i.e. the right superior, left superior and inferior. The aorta arches over the left bronchus near the point of tracheal bifurcation. Thus, the nerves that are closely associated with the aorta might be irritated if these nodes become inflamed. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is such a nerve. The phrenic nerves, both the left and the right, are lateral and thus would not be affected. The right recurrent nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and is distant from this area. The right vagus artery is not associated with the aorta and the sympathetic chain is located in the posterior chest parallel to the vertebra, also not associated with the tracheobronchial tree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination reveals a decerebrate posture and bilateral papilledema. A CT scan reveals marked diffuse cerebral oedema. This condition will be most severe in which component of the brain?

      Your Answer: Neuronal cell bodies

      Correct Answer: White matter

      Explanation:

      The greatest amount of salt and water increase with cerebral oedema occurs within the white matter. Any swelling from oedema, haemorrhage or haematoma increases the intracranial pressure (ICP). As the ICP increases, the cerebral perfusion decreases and brain tissue can become ischaemic, even leading to brain death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and nausea for 2 days. He also complained of intolerance to bright light and loud sounds. Lumbar puncture showed glucose < 45 mg/dl, protein > 5 mg/dl and neutrophil leucocytosis. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of meningitis can be carried out with examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a lumbar puncture (LP). In a case of bacterial meningitis, the CSF analysis will show:

      – Opening pressure: > 180 mmH2O

      – White blood cell count: 10–10 000/μl with neutrophil predominance

      – Glucose: < 40 mg/dl – CSF glucose to serum glucose ratio: < 0.4 – Protein: > 4.5 mg/dl

      – Gram stain: positive in > 60%

      – Culture: positive in > 80%

      – Latex agglutination: may be positive in meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli and group B streptococci

      – Limulus, lysates: positive in Gram-negative meningitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the...

    Correct

    • What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?

      Your Answer: Posterior cruciate

      Explanation:

      The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect: ...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Regulation of circadian rhythm

      Explanation:

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is responsible for controlling endogenous circadian rhythms and destruction of the SCN leads to a loss of circadian rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Correct

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      103
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order to reach the eye?

      Your Answer: Optic canal

      Explanation:

      The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The canal is located in the sphenoid bone; it is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone is bounded behind by a ridge, which forms the anterior border of a narrow, transverse groove, the chiasmatic groove (optic groove). The groove ends on either side in the optic foramen, which transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the orbital cavity. Compared to the optic nerve, the ophthalmic artery is located inferolaterally within the canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Correct

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:...

    Correct

    • In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:

      Your Answer: They are in the same subcutaneous plane as the platysma muscle

      Explanation:

      The facial muscles generally originate from the facial bones and attach to the skin, in the same plane as the platysma muscle. They are all innervated by cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve). The occipitofrontalis muscle consists of two parts: The occipital belly, near the occipital bone, and the frontal belly, near the frontal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures is the tendon of tibialis posterior, tendon of flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is: ...

    Correct

    • A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity...

    Incorrect

    • The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Facial

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:

      – The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.

      – The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.

      – The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.

      – The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.

      – The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the? ...

    Correct

    • The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by S1,2,4 anterior branches. It gives off the inferior haemorrhoid nerve before dividing terminally into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris or the penis. Thus, it is the principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for surgery to have the hernia repaired. The hernia was discovered to be protruding through the Hesselbach's triangle (inguinal triangle). Which of the following blood vessels that is a branch of the external iliac artery forms the lateral border of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle is formed by the following structures; inguinal ligament at the base; inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the lateral border of the rectus sheath medially. This triangle (also known as Hesselebach’s triangle) is where direct inguinal hernias protrude. The inferior epigastric artery is this the branch of the external iliac artery being referred to. All the other blood vessels are branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the...

    Correct

    • The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      94.4
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      108.1
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Correct

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:

      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:

      Stapes,

      Temporal styloid process,

      Stylohyoid ligament, and

      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.

      Muscles:

      Muscles of face

      Occipitofrontalis muscle

      Platysma

      Stylohyoid muscle

      Posterior belly of Digastric

      Stapedius muscle

      Auricular muscles

      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.

      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Correct

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure....

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure. This fissure separates:

      Your Answer: The lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes

      Correct Answer: The middle lobe from the upper lobe

      Explanation:

      The horizontal fissure separates the upper lobe from the middle lobe. The oblique fissure on the other hand separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes. The lingula is found only on the left lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by...

    Correct

    • A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Incorrect

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer: Vas deferens

      Correct Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?

      Your Answer: Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 4 and 5

      Correct Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

      Explanation:

      The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the...

    Correct

    • The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the brain and is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards in the brain. Where is the circle of Willis contained?

      Your Answer: Cisterna basalis

      Explanation:

      Cisterns refers to a system of intercommunicating pools formed by the subarachnoid space at the base of the brain and around the brainstem. Cisterna basalis/basal cistern (interpeduncular cistern) is found at the base of the brain between the two temporal lobes and it contains the arterial circle of Willis. The lumbar cistern is contained in the spinal canal while the foramen magna refers to the opening at the base of the skull though which the spinal cord enters into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The thoracic duct : ...

    Correct

    • The thoracic duct :

      Your Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?

      Your Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma...

    Correct

    • What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma to the side of the head over the temporal region:

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery normally arises from the first or mandibular segment of the maxillary artery. The artery runs in a groove on the inside of the cranium, this can clearly be seen on a lateral skull X-ray. An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Incorrect

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Correct

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.

      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the...

    Correct

    • The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the jaw?

      Your Answer: Protrude the mandible

      Explanation:

      The combined effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles results in the protrusion of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid muscle is a muscle of mastication located superiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle and has two heads. The superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, and the inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. The insertion of this muscle is on the front margin of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint. The unilateral contraction of the pterygoid muscle results in the laterotrusion of the mandible. It is important to note that the lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that can open the jaw.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the...

    Correct

    • If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the waves most likely to be seen are:

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is the neurophysiological measurement of the electrical activity of the brain. It is done by placing electrodes on the scalp or subdurally. In reality, the electrical currents are not measured, but rather the voltage differences between different parts of the brain. Four major types of EEG activity are recognized, which are alpha, beta, delta and theta.

      Alpha waves, also known as Berger’s waves ranges in frequency from 8-12 Hz. Best detected with eyes closed, alpha waves are characteristic of a relaxed, alert state of consciousness. An alpha-like normal variant called mu is sometimes seen over the motor cortex (central scalp) and attenuates with movement or, rather, with the intention to move.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in...

    Correct

    • Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in paralysis of the rectus capitis anterior muscle:

      Your Answer: C1, C2

      Explanation:

      The rectus capitis anterior is a short, flat muscle, situated immediately behind the upper part of the longus capitis. It is also known as the obliquus capitis superior. It aids in flexion of the head and the neck. Nerve supple is from C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Incorrect

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Circumflex scapular artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Correct

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:

      Olfactory – Purely sensory

      Optic – Sensory

      Oculomotor – Mainly motor

      Trochlear – Motor

      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor

      Abducens – Mainly motor

      Facial – Both sensory and motor

      Vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory

      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor

      Vagus – Both sensory and motor

      Accessory – Mainly motor

      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the...

    Correct

    • A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Correct

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.

      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.

      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.

      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer: Pupil diameter is determined by the balance between parasympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and sympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle.

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: Retromandibular vein

      Correct Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Correct

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle...

    Correct

    • From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle arise?

      Your Answer: Obturator internus

      Explanation:

      The levator ani muscle arises from the posterior surface of the superior ramus of the pubis lateral to the symphysis, behind the inner surface of the spine of the ischium and between these points from the obturator internus fascia. It is attached to the inner surface of the side of the lesser pelvic cavity, supports the viscera in the cavity and surrounds the various structures that pass through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Correct Answer: 3rd

      Explanation:

      The following structures arise from each branchial pouch:

      1st pouch – eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid, and inner layer of the tympanic membrane

      2nd pouch – middle ear, palatine tonsils

      3rd pouch – inferior parathyroid glands, thymus

      4th pouch – superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body which forms the parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland, musculature and cartilage of larynx (along with the sixth pharyngeal pouch)

      5th pouch – rudimentary structure

      6th pouch – along with the fourth pouch, contributes to the formation of the musculature and cartilage of the larynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Endocrine; Embryology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior...

    Correct

    • An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh. The cause of this:

      Your Answer: Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle

      Explanation:

      The pectineus is supplied by the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves through the femoral nerve and by the third lumbar through the accessory obturator when it exists. The anterior surface of the thigh receives its innervation from the femoral nerve as well, thus this is the nerve most likely to be injured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of Brown-Séquard syndrome due to hemisection of the spinal cord at mid-thoracic level?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral spastic paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Explanation:

      Brown–Séquard syndrome results due to lateral hemisection of the spinal cord and results in a loss of motricity (paralysis and ataxia) and sensation. The hemisection of the cord results in a lesion of each of the three main neural systems: the principal upper motor neurone pathway of the corticospinal tract, one or both dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract. As a result of the injury to these three main brain pathways the patient will present with three lesions. The corticospinal lesion produces spastic paralysis on the same side of the body (the loss of moderation by the upper motor neurons). The lesion to fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus results in ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense). The loss of the spinothalamic tract leads to pain and temperature sensation being lost from the contralateral side beginning one or two segments below the lesion. At the lesion site, all sensory modalities are lost on the same side, and an ipsilateral flaccid paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Correct

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of...

    Correct

    • Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of a boil located on the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The perineum, external genitalia, the labia majora and scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. In a man, the testes do not drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes but rather travel in the spermatic cord and drain into the lumbar nodes. The lumbar nodes drain the internal pelvic organs. The sacral nodes drain the prostrate gland, uterus, vagina, rectum and posterior pelvic wall and the external iliac nodes in turn drain the lower limb. The internal iliac nodes drain the pelvis and gluteal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Begins anterior to the lateral malleolus as a continuation of the lateral marginal vein

      Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Correct

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when...

    Correct

    • Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints? ...

    Correct

    • Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from...

    Correct

    • A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?

      Your Answer: Facial expression

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:

      Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal

      – Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear

      – Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

      Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear

      – Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Superior oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Subscapular

      Correct Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer: Levator scapulae

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Correct

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.

      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.

      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.

      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.

      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk of injury in excision of a malignant tumour in the right ovary?

      Your Answer: Ureter

      Explanation:

      The ovaries are two nodular structures situated one on either side of the uterus in relation to the lateral wall of the pelvis and attached to the back of the broad ligament of the uterus, lying posteroinferiorly to the fallopian tubes. Each ovary has a lateral and medial surface. The ureter is at greater risk of iatrogenic injury at this location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Correct

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The contents of the carpal tunnel include:

      – Median nerve

      – Flexor digitorum supervicialis

      – Flexor digitorum profundus

      – Flexor policis longus

      – Flexor carpi radialis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus,...

    Correct

    • The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?

      Your Answer: Teres minor

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      11.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (102/129) 79%
Head & Neck (34/42) 81%
Pelvis (10/10) 100%
Neurology (35/41) 85%
Physiology (25/28) 89%
Upper Limb (12/23) 52%
Thorax (22/23) 96%
Lower Limb (20/24) 83%
Pathology (10/13) 77%
Embryology (3/5) 60%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Endocrine; Embryology (0/1) 0%
Passmed