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  • Question 1 - Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates? ...

    Correct

    • Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates?

      Your Answer: Dysplasia

      Explanation:

      Dysplasia has 4 microscopic characteristics:
      Anisocytosis (unequal cell size)
      Poikilocytosis (abnormal cell shape)
      Hyperchromatism (pigmentation)
      Mitotic figures (increased cells currently dividing)

      Hyperplasia and hypertrophy is characterised by increase in cell number and increase in cell size respectively, whereas atrophy means decrease in cell size.
      Metaplasia is characterised by change of one form of cell to another type e.g. changes of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antibiotic therapy should be continued until delivery occurs.

      Correct Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:

      1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
      2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
      -If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
      3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
      4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
      5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
      6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
      7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      165.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There is red vulva and yellowish discharge on inspection.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      This patient has got thrush or a fungal infection in the vaginal area. Candida infection is most likely based on the white discharge and itching. A vaginal clotrimazole antifungal treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?...

    Incorrect

    • In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?

      Your Answer: Fibroblasts

      Correct Answer: Fibrin

      Explanation:

      The 1st stage of wound healing is haemostasis. Even in incised wounds a small haematoma forms. Here the clotting cascade is activated by tissue factor and endothelial cells resulting in activation of platelets. This results in platelet aggregation and the laying down of a fibrin mesh that is cross linked and holds the platelets in place.
      Wound healing is typically divided into phases:
      1. Haemostasis Phase
      2. Inflammatory phase
      3. Proliferation phase
      4. Remodelling phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      These are the most common ovarian tumours in young women. The most common form is the mature dermoid cyst (cystic teratoma). It can consist of a combination of all the type of tissues (mesenchymal, stromal and epithelial). Any mature tissue type can be present such as muscle, cartilage, bone, teeth and often hair. Treatment is cystectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The normal lining of the fallopian tube is: ...

    Correct

    • The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:

      Your Answer: Columnar epithelium with cilia

      Explanation:

      The Fallopian tubes, also known as, uterine tubes, and salpinges, are two very fine tubes lined with ciliated columnar epithelia, leading from the ovaries of female mammals into the uterus, via the uterotubal junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer: Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy and have a platelet count >600 should be offered LMWH & Aspirin (75 mg/day)

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception

      Explanation:

      Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Correct

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days...

    Correct

    • The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days menstrual cycle is:

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      After ovulation, the dominant follicle turns into a corpus luteum and begins to secrete progesterone. To confirm ovulation, serum progesterone or its metabolite in urine, can be measured. A single serum progesterone level >3 ng/ml in mid‐luteal phase has been used to retrospectively detect ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms? ...

    Correct

    • Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?

      Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
      – Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
      – Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
      – Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the...

    Correct

    • An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
      – to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
      – look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
      – examine the placenta for abnormalities
      – identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
      – diagnose a possible miscarriage
      – confirm an early pregnancy

      This is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.

      The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.

      This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Correct

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis are stimulated by Prolactin. Dopamine released under hypothalamic control inhibits Prolactin production. Note oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis up until term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan findings corresponds to 8 weeks of gestations.
      On laboratory examination, her urine culture came out as Staphylococcus saprophyticus resistant to amoxicillin, but she is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which among the following is considered the best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Augmentin

      Explanation:

      In the given case, the patient should be treated with Augmentin.
      Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurs in about 2 % to 10 % of all pregnancies and if left untreated, about 30% of this will develop acute cystitis and the other 50% will develop acute pyelonephritis.

      Escherichia coli is the most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria, which consists more than 80% of the isolate and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus accounts for about 5-10% of isolates associated with uncomplicated UTI. Escherichia coli is a very common normal flora found in the gastrointestinal tract and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus is a commonly found normal flora in genital tract and perineum.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria has found to be associated with low birth weight and preterm birth, and it is found that a short term antibiotic treatment will help in improving the fetal outcomes in cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria or uncomplicated UTI. Hence, all cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria and uncomplicated UTI during pregnancy are recommended to be treated with a five day course of oral antibiotics as this is normally sufficient in pregnant women.

      Drug of choice in asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of E. coli are either:
      – Cephalexin 500 mg oral twice a day for 5 days or
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg orally twice daily for 5 days or
      – Trimethoprim 300 mg oral doses daily for 5 days (avoided during first trimester and in those pregnant women with established folate deficiency, low dietary folate intake, or for women taking other folate antagonists).
      – Amoxicillin + clavulanate 500 + 125 mg oral, twice daily for 5 days if < 20 weeks of gestation.
      Note: In view of childhood outcomes – (ORACLE II trial and 7 year follow-up), which showed an associated increase in necrotising enterocolitis, functional impairment (low), and cerebral palsy, it is recommended that amoxicillin / clavulanate is only used if no alternative treatment is available(if >20 weeks of gestation).

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities ) in case of Staphylococcus saprophyticus infection is as follows:
      Cephalexin 500 mg oral doses twice a day for 5 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of infection with Pseudomonas suggest Norfloxacin 400 mg oral twice daily for 5 days, then repeat MSSU 48 hours after the treatment is completed.

      In case of Group B streptococcus as a single organism, Penicillin V 500 mg oral twice daily for 5 days. If the patient is hypersensitive to penicillin give Cephalexin 500 mg orally twice a day for 5 days were immediate hypersensitivity is excluded. If immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin is noticed, then Clindamycin 450 mg three times daily for 5 days is advised.

      Amoxicillin is found more effective in treating UTIs caused by organisms which are resistant to the drug in vitro because of its high concentrations attainable in urine. However, a study shows that amoxicillin-resistant organisms do not respond to amoxicillin alone but Augmentin [amoxicillin clavulanate] is found to cure urinary tract infection irrespective of the amoxicillin susceptibility of the organism in vitro. Of the patients infected with amoxicillin-resistant organisms, 80% were cured by augmentin and only 10% with infection by amoxicillin-resistant organisms were cured by amoxicillin.

      Now a days Amoxicillin is not preferred as the common treatment option for UTI due to increasing incidences of Escherichia coli resistance, which accounts majority of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. Clavulanic acid which is a beta-lactamase inhibitor works synergistically with amoxicillin to extend spectrum antibiotic susceptibility. This makes UTIs less likely to be resistant to the treatment with amoxicillin clavulanate compared to amoxicillin alone.
      Ciprofloxacin and Gentamicin which are the other antibiotic choice considered otherwise also should be avoided in pregnancy as they comes under FDA pregnancy Category C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.

      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm

      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known...

    Correct

    • A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      First trimester abortions are performed using mifepristone 600 mg followed by insertion of 1 mg gemeprost vaginal pessary. The patients stays in the hospital for about 4-6 hours. At the time of abortion azithromycin 1 g and metronidazole 800 mg should be given to cover the gram positive and negative bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 52 years old patient wants to see her options of HRT for...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 years old patient wants to see her options of HRT for menopausal symptoms.

      Which statement is true about continues use of combined HRT?

      Your Answer: It increases risk of endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: It increases the risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Most types of HRT increase the risk of breast cancer. But the risk is higher for those using combined HRT, which uses both oestrogen and progestogen. Vaginal oestrogens are not linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, whereas tibolone is. Taking HRT for 1 year or less only slightly increases breast cancer risk. However, the longer you take HRT the greater the risks are, and the longer they last.

      Evidence is insufficient to conclude that long-term oestrogen therapy or hormone therapy use improves cardiovascular outcomes.

      HRT containing oestrogen alone increases risk of endometrial cancer. However, this is not the case when using combined HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.

      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).

      Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three days, she has been suffering from dyspareunia and difficulty walking. She claims she has never had any sexually transmitted illnesses before. Her companion has no symptoms. She is afebrile and in good health.

      On pelvic examination, a red, heated swelling measuring 4cm in diameter is discovered in the posterior end of the right labia majora. A speculum examination reveals normal-looking mucosa with no obvious discharge. There is no lymphadenopathy in the region.

      Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Marsupialization

      Correct Answer: Word catheter

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Bartholin cyst abscess.
      Insertion of an inflatable balloon is a non-surgical procedure that can be performed as an outpatient using a local anaesthetic (LA) injection to numb the area. It involves making a passage from the cyst or abscess through which the pus can drain over 4 weeks. After the LA injection, a small skin cut is made into the cyst or abscess, which allows drainage. A fluid/ pus swab sample may be taken to check for an infection at this stage. A cotton bud is used to break the pockets of abscess/ cyst fluid. A flexible tube (called a Word catheter) with a small, specially designed balloon at its tip is then inserted into the cyst or abscess to create a passage. The balloon is inflated with 3–4mls of sterile fluid to keep the catheter in place. Rarely, a stitch may be used to partly close the cut and hold the balloon in position. It is then left in place for up to 4 weeks; new skin to forms around the passage and the wound heals.

      Marsupialization can be done for drainage but is inferior or word catheter because of the technical challenges and complications. Hot compressions and analgesics alone do not suffice in the presence of an abscess. Antibiotics are given after drainage but are not effective alone when there is a large collection of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk...

    Correct

    • At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.

      Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
      Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half-life of Oxytocin is approximately 5 minutes
      The half-life of Misoprostol is approximately 20-40 minutes
      The half-life of Ergometrine is approximately 30-120 minutes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first...

    Correct

    • During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?

      Your Answer: 150ml

      Explanation:

      Micturition is defined as a process of expelling urine from the body. It is caused by the reflex contraction of detrusor muscle. Urinary bladder is a hollow muscular organ which can store 400-600ml of urine until it is expelled from the body. The first urge to urinate is felt when the bladder is filled with around 150ml of urine. The reflex action is initiated when the stretch receptors located in the bladder wall are stimulated. The afferent fibres pass to the pelvic splanchnic nerves to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments and some pass through the hypogastric plexus to the first and second lumbar segments of the spinal cord. Efferent pathways from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments leave the cords and through the splanchnic nerves and inferior hypogastric plexus supplies the smooth muscle of the bladder i.e. detrusor muscle. Detrusor muscle contracts and the sphincters are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.

      These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.

      She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.

      On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.

      Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.

      From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: An imperforate hymen.

      Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following aetiological factors causes a reduction in the risk of fibroids?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Risk of fibroids is more common among African ethnicity and is also related to obesity and early puberty. The role of combined oral contraceptive pills is still debatable and its results are conflicting, whereas the risk of fibroids decreases with the increase in number of pregnancies. i.e. multiparous women have a lower risk of fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Correct

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Trans-vaginal sonography (TVS)

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (4/6) 67%
Gynaecology (3/7) 43%
Anatomy (5/5) 100%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (4/5) 80%
Passmed