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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?
Your Answer: Cerazette®
Explanation:Desogestrel only POPs work mainly by inhibiting ovulation. Cerazette Is the only brand in this list which belongs to this group.
Types of Progesterone Only Pills
1. Traditional (e.g. Femulen®, Micronor®, Norgeston®)
Main mode of action: thickening cervical mucus preventing sperm entry at neck of womb and may also cause anovulation but this effect variable and unreliable
2. Desogestrel (e.g. Cerazette®)
Main mode of action: inhibition of ovulation and also cause thickening of cervical mucus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.
She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma
Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.
Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.
Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.
Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.
The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.
With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.
PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:
Anger or irritability.
Anxiety and panic attacks.
Depression and suicidal thoughts.
Difficulty concentrating.
Fatigue and low energy.
Food cravings or binge eating.
Headaches.
Insomnia.
Mood swings.The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:
Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.
For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.
The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Incorrect
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All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Placenta previa
Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true?
Your Answer: Usually presents with primary amenorrhea
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea, have non functional or streak ovaries and cant conceive. They are 45X genetically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.
Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.
Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.
As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Internal iliac nodes
Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?
Your Answer: Escherichia Coli
Explanation:The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealing Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer: Colposcopy at your clinic
Correct Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital
Explanation:If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is most commonly caused by cigarette smoke. Other risk factors include naphthylamine, azodyes and long term cyclophosphamide use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs.
On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2.
Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min.
Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?Your Answer: Eliminate caffeine consumption from diet
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?
Your Answer: Folic Acid
Explanation:Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.
Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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Question 18
Incorrect
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When consenting a patient for abdominal hysterectomy what would you advise regarding the risk?
Your Answer: Overall risk of serious complications 1%
Correct Answer: Injury to ureter or bladder is approximately 1%
Explanation:Abdominal hysterectomy is performed through a Pfannenstiel incision. There are certain complications associated with hysterectomy including haemorrhage, injury to the ureter(1%) and less commonly bladder and bowel (0.04%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?
Your Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding
Explanation:it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.
For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.
All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Continue pills as usual.
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.
Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.
Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.
All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs.
Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.
The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.
Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old female patient on HRT for the past two years wonders how often she should have breast cancer screenings.
Which of the following responses is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Annual breast screening is recommended as HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Correct Answer: Mammogram every two years until the age of 70
Explanation:Some confusion regarding breast cancer screening arose in 2009 when the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) issued new mammogram guidelines. The task force recommended that screening mammograms be conducted every two years, beginning at age 50, for women with an average risk of breast cancer. For women aged 40 to 49, the decision of whether to have annual mammograms should be based on a patient’s consideration of risks vs. benefits, according to the task force.
There is no evidence that frequent screening for women on HRT helps with early detection of malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
Your Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.
Explanation:It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.
In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?
Your Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum
Explanation:Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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DEXA scans measure bone density by
Your Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site
Explanation:DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:
Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
Motility 15% (>40%)
Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)
A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.
Which would be the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer: Carry out intrauterine insemination of the wife with his semen,
Correct Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
Explanation:Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?
Your Answer: 46XY
Explanation:Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She is otherwise well and her US abdomen is normal. What is the best treatment option?
Your Answer: Mirena coil
Explanation:Mirena coil is used for contraception and for long term birth control. It causes stoppage of menstrual bleeding however, in a few cases there may be inter-menstrual spotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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