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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Correct

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Causes breakdown of the nuclear envelope

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - When during the cell cycle does DNA replication occur? ...

    Correct

    • When during the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: S phase

      Explanation:

      The S phase is known as the synthesis phase. During this phase DNA will begin to replicated, as well as the synthesis of the centrosomes and associated proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Consanguinity involves being from the same kinship as another person. It is a common feature of an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and...

    Correct

    • When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and the protein produced by the normal form of the gene cannot compensate. The affected individual has an:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant disorder

      Explanation:

      An autosomal dominant trait will be expressed no matter the consequence. If one chromosome has a mutation the other will not be able to compensate for the mutation hence the protein formed will be mutated and will not function properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which statement is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect?

      Your Answer: AAUAAA acts as a cleavage signal for endonucleases.

      Correct Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.

      Explanation:

      Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      39.2
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which statement is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial DNA has a double helix structure and also has a critical role in apoptosis.

      Correct Answer: MtDNA principally encodes for proteins that are involved in oxidative phosphorylation for the production of ATP in the cell.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria have no nucleus instead they contain their own free floating circular genome (MtDNA), which encodes 13 different subunits of proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation. The remainder of the mitochondrial proteins are nuclear encoded, synthesized in the cytoplasm, and transported into the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      30.4
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Correct

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for...

    Correct

    • During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for genetic diversity between individuals:

      Your Answer: Prophase 1

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages ( laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene ans diakinesis). In prophase 1 chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere. the nucleolus and nuclear envelope are going to disintegrate. the homologous chromosomes will form tetrad and crossing over will occur between the chromosomes (random exchange of genes), the point of exchange is known as the chiasmata, this increases genetic diversity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is...

    Correct

    • The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G2 phase

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders:

      Your Answer: These disorders are usually severe and many patients present in the first years of life and mortality is high

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      17.4
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: Gene probes can be labelled with radioactive isotopes e.g. 32 p

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial...

    Incorrect

    • The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial function are found:

      Your Answer: In the mitochondria of the cell

      Correct Answer: In the nucleus of each diploid cell

      Explanation:

      While mitochondria have their own small circular DNA (mtDNA) that encodes some of the proteins and RNAs required for mitochondrial function, the majority of proteins involved in mitochondrial function are encoded by nuclear DNA. These nuclear genes are transcribed in the nucleus and then translated into proteins in the cytoplasm. The proteins are subsequently imported into the mitochondria.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • In the nucleus of each diploid cell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      23.1
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Correct

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto-...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto- oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes in the following ways.

      Your Answer: Mutations in the genomic DNA

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of P53

      Explanation:

      Proto oncogenes cannot be transformed into oncogenes due to inhibition of P53 gene. There has to be a mutation in the proto oncogene. All the other options are true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Correct

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Incorrect

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Translocation

      Correct Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.

      Explanation:

      Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through...

    Correct

    • In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 2n

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24.1
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Incorrect

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) does indeed lack introns, meaning that its genes are closely packed with coding sequences. This actually means that any point mutation in the mtDNA is more likely to have an effect, not less. The lack of introns means there are fewer non-coding regions where mutations can occur without affecting gene function. Thus, mutations in mtDNA often have significant consequences because they are more likely to alter essential coding sequences.

      The other statements are true:

      • Most mitochondrial diseases are myopathies and neuropathies with a maternal pattern of inheritance: This is correct because mtDNA is inherited maternally, and many mitochondrial disorders affect muscle and nerve function.
      • Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus, and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other diseases attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects: These are indeed conditions associated with mitochondrial defects.
      • Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother: This is correct, as mtDNA is passed from mother to offspring.
      • Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON), the commonest cause of blindness in young men, is an example of a mitochondrial chromosome defect: This is true; LHON is a well-known mitochondrial disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - Which statement is correct regarding mRNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding mRNA?

      Your Answer: mRNA is double stranded and acts as a template for protein synthesis.

      Correct Answer: mRNAs are mainly found in the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell.

      Explanation:

      mRNA is transcribed from DNA and is carried to the cytosol to be translated. Hence it is mainly found in the cytosol and the nucleus of a cell. It is single stranded and contains the base uracil instead of thymine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26.2
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - When during the cell cycle do the centrioles replicate? ...

    Incorrect

    • When during the cell cycle do the centrioles replicate?

      Your Answer: G2 phase

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      During G1 phase the cell will prepare for cell division. All the organelles will start to duplicate in this phase and the cell will begin to grow whilst proteins are also synthesized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together...

    Correct

    • In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together by:

      Your Answer: Hydrogen bonding.

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides will always bind together via hydrogen bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds present between thymine and adenine and three hydrogen bonds present between guanine and cytosine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes?

      Your Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:

      Your Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.

      The other statements are true:

      • Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
      • RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
      • RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
      • Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves: ...

    Correct

    • In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:

      Your Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: None of the above telomeres shorten with all cell divisions

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Correct

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Correct

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 41 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds

  • Question 42 - What is the structure of nucleosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the structure of nucleosomes?

      Your Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + introns + exons

      Correct Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + histones

      Explanation:

      DNA is packed and condensed by binding to histone proteins. The double stranded DNA forms a complex with histone proteins which is called a nucleosome. There are 8 histone proteins contained in one core of nucleosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 43 - During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      During the prometaphase the microtubule organizing centre completely develops. The spindle fibers attach to the chromosome and the centriole. It is in the Anaphase however that the spindle fibers contract pulling the sister chromatids apart. Later in the anaphase a cleave furrow beings to forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute? ...

    Correct

    • During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?

      Your Answer: Telophase

      Explanation:

      In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds

  • Question 46 - Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except:

      Your Answer: There is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification.

      Explanation:

      All are true except there is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification. There is an exponential rise in amplification of DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance...

    Incorrect

    • Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance of them having a normal child is?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The chance for normal parents having a child with a recessive disease is 1:4 or 25%. As both the parents are heterozygous for this condition. They have a 3:4 chance of having a normal child or 75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds

  • Question 49 - During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

      Your Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 50 - When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to: ...

    Incorrect

    • When 2 nucleotide chains of DNA bind together, thymine is bound to:

      Your Answer: Guanine

      Correct Answer: Adenine

      Explanation:

      As a general rule in the structure of DNA, thymine always binds to adenine with two hydrogen bonds, cytosine always binds to guanine with three hydrogen bonds and vice versa. However In the structure of RNA the only difference is that adenine binds to uracil instead of thymine. But thymine will always bind to adenine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (33/50) 66%
Medicine (33/50) 66%
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