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  • Question 1 - Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Malum perforans

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:- Acral dry gangrene- Carotenosis- Diabetic dermopathy- Diabetic bulla- Diabetic cheiroarthropathy- Malum perforans- Necrobiosis lipoidica- Limited joint mobility- Scleroderma- Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%. Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction...

    Correct

    • Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?

      Your Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

      Explanation:

      tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The brainstem contains which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The brainstem contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: The midbrain, pons and medulla

      Explanation:

      Brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It consists of the mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?

      Your Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol

      Your Answer: Aminoglycosides work on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis: ...

    Correct

    • Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis:

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The WHO report states that about one-quarter of the world’s population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis. This means approximately 25% of people globally have latent TB infection, which can potentially progress to active TB disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer: Conversion to methimazole, which blocks the TSH receptor

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state. Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.Treatment of MDMA overdose:Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where is the major site of purine synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the major site of purine synthesis?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The major site of purine synthesis is in the liver. Purines are biologically synthesized as nucleotides and in particular as ribotides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Correct

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Increase in permeability of muscle fiber to Na+

      Correct Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin

      Explanation:

      In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?...

    Correct

    • To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine-binding globulin, also known as TBG, is one of the three transport proteins responsible for carrying T4 and T3 through the circulatory system. It carries most of the T4 present in plasma, which it binds to strongly, shielding the hydrophobic hormones from the aqueous surroundings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following takes place during fasting ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following takes place during fasting

      Your Answer: Peristalsis

      Correct Answer: Migrating motor complex

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are waves of electrical activity that sweep through the intestines in a regular cycle during fasting. These motor complexes trigger peristaltic waves, which facilitate transportation of indigestible substances such as bone, fiber, and foreign bodies from the stomach, through the small intestine, past the ileocecal sphincter, and into the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Radicular arteries

      Correct Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Coronary blood flow occurs in? ...

    Correct

    • Coronary blood flow occurs in?

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries are unique in that they fill during diastole, when not occluded by valve cusps nor compressed by myocardial contraction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with a history suggestive of erectile dysfunction. You decide to start him on sildenafil citrate. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications:- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Competitive blockade of histamine at receptor sites

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE. The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a: ...

    Correct

    • The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a:

      Your Answer: Prion

      Explanation:

      Types of Creutzfeldt Jacobs Disease (CJD) include:1. variant – This is thought to be caused by the consumption of food contaminated with prions, which also cause BSE.2. sporadic – This accounts for 85% of cases of CJD. 3. familial – This accounts for the majority of the other 15% cases of CJD.4. iatrogenic – This form of CJD arises from contamination with tissue from an infected person, usually as the result of a medical procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Correct

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle:

      Your Answer: Are mainly ventral spinocerebellar tracts from the cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus

      Explanation:

      There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

      The superior cerebellar peduncle contains vital afferent and efferent fibers including cerebellothalamic, cerebellorubral and ventrospinocerebellar tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A sarcomere is the area between: ...

    Correct

    • A sarcomere is the area between:

      Your Answer: Two adjacent z lines

      Explanation:

      The area that lies between the two adjacent Z lines is known as a sarcomere and is the contractile unit of the muscle. The line passing in the middle of the myosin filaments is the M line. It also passes through the middle of the sarcomere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The nucleus ambiguus: ...

    Incorrect

    • The nucleus ambiguus:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Regulates swallowing, phonation and parasympathetic supply to the heart via CN IX, X and XI

      Explanation:

      Nucleus Ambiguus is a group of large motor neurons found deep in the medullary reticular formation. It contains cell bodies of nerves that are responsible for the innervation of muscles of speech and swallowing which are located in the soft palate, pharynx and larynx. Additionally, it contains cholinergic preganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the heart via CN X, IX and XI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed:Paracetamol: 14 mg/lINR: 1Liver enzymes: No abnormality detectedBilirubin: Mild elevationHe was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated:Bilirubin: Within normal limitsUrea: 21 mmol/lCreatinine: 300 µmol/lWhat is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Minimal change nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury. Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.Management:NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.Other options:-There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.- Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.- Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation = mean / square root (variance)

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:- It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.- It is unimodal- The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).- Its density has two inflection points.- Its density is log-concave.The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Intrinsic Factor is released by, ...

    Correct

    • Intrinsic Factor is released by,

      Your Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (18/30) 60%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (3/6) 50%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Research Skills (0/1) 0%
Passmed