00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium...

    Incorrect

    • When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium levels?

      Your Answer: Immediately before next dose

      Correct Answer: 12 hours after last dose

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a true statement about the falx cerebri? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer: It is a layer of dura mater which divides the cerebellar hemispheres

      Correct Answer: It is a layer of dura mater which separates the two cerebral hemispheres

      Explanation:

      Dura Mater

      The dura mater is one of the three membranes, known as meninges, that cover the brain and spinal cord. It is the outermost and most fibrous layer, with the pia mater and arachnoid mater making up the remaining layers. The pia mater is the innermost layer.

      The dura mater is folded at certain points, including the falx cerebri, which separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, the tentorium cerebelli, which separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum, the falx cerebelli, which separates the cerebellar hemispheres, and the sellar diaphragm, which covers the pituitary gland and forms a roof over the hypophyseal fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which structure is responsible for the secretion of glucocorticoids in the HPA axis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is responsible for the secretion of glucocorticoids in the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: The pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: The adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male reported experiencing the scent of lavender when he listens to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male reported experiencing the scent of lavender when he listens to music. What is the most probable explanation for this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Illusion

      Correct Answer: Synaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Hallucinations and Illusions

      Hallucinations can take on different forms, including reflex hallucinations, auditory hallucinations, and functional hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one sensory modality produces a hallucination in another. For example, someone may smell oranges when they hear music. Auditory hallucinations, on the other hand, are the presence of auditory experiences in the absence of a true stimulus. Functional hallucinations occur when an external stimulus provokes a hallucination, and the normal perception of the external stimulus and the hallucinatory experience are in the same modality.

      In addition to hallucinations, there are also illusions, which involve false perceptions with sensory distortions. Kinaesthetic hallucinations are a type of hallucination that involve bodily movements. Understanding the different types of hallucinations and illusions can help individuals better recognize and manage these experiences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than the behaviors leading up to it?

      Your Answer: Autonomy

      Correct Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuron secretes glutamate as its neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: Purkinje

      Correct Answer: A delta and C pain fibers

      Explanation:

      A delta and C fibers use glutamate as their primary neurotransmitter where it acts as a fast acting localized neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the potential mechanism believed to be responsible for weight gain caused...

    Correct

    • What is the potential mechanism believed to be responsible for weight gain caused by antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: 5-HT2c antagonism

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a flat and broad head, a prominent forehead, heavy brows, up-slanting eyes, a depressed nasal bridge, and a wide mouth with a fleshy and inverted central portion of the upper lip. Additionally, you observe short and broad hands, short stature, a hoarse deep voice, speech delay, and hearing loss. During follow-up, you notice a predominance of various self-injurious behaviors, including self-biting, head-banging, and picking sores. The patient also exhibits self-hugging behavior. What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Smith-Magenis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Smith-Magenis syndrome is characterized by a behavioural phenotype that often involves severe self harm, but it is distinguished by a unique behaviour known as self-hugging. The syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 17 (17p11.2) and is estimated to occur in one out of every 25,000 births. Due to its prevalence and distinct features, Smith-Magenis syndrome is frequently tested on the Royal College examinations and is important to understand in detail.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are...

    Incorrect

    • During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are taking a high dosage of haloperidol. What other factor in their medical history would increase their risk for QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Also prescribed lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      While certain factors in his medical history, such as smoking, may heighten the likelihood of a cardiac event, it is solely his bradycardia that is associated with QTc prolongation.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which individual discussed objects that provide comfort during times of transition of stress?...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual discussed objects that provide comfort during times of transition of stress?

      Your Answer: Klein

      Correct Answer: Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Transitional objects were conceptualized by Winnicott as items that infants between 4-18 months of age select to aid in their separation and individuation process. These objects, such as a soft toy of blanket, serve as a source of comfort and help reduce anxiety. Object relations theory was also supported by Balint and Fairbairn. Meanwhile, Kleinian theory placed significant emphasis on the interpretation of play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the rate at which new cases of a disease are appearing, calculated by dividing the number of new cases by the total time that disease-free individuals are observed during a study period?

      Your Answer: Incidence rate

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      19481
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which base pairs are found within DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which base pairs are found within DNA?

      Your Answer: Adenine and guanine

      Correct Answer: Guanine and cytosine

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not a part of the therapeutic community approach?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a part of the therapeutic community approach?

      Your Answer: Communalism

      Correct Answer: Dependency

      Explanation:

      The Henderson hospital model exemplifies the four principles that underlie the therapeutic community, which include communalism, permissiveness, democratisation, and reality confrontation. These principles are reflected in the way staff and inmates interact, with a focus on mutual support and learning, tolerance of unpredictable behavior, shared decision-making, and open and honest communication about distortions from reality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What condition is identified by the existence of Pick bodies? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is identified by the existence of Pick bodies?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which enzyme is affected by presenilin mutations in individuals with early-onset Alzheimer's disease?...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is affected by presenilin mutations in individuals with early-onset Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: β Secretase

      Correct Answer: γ Secretase

      Explanation:

      The gamma secretase complex, consisting of four key proteins including presenilin, plays a crucial role in converting Amyloid Precursor Protein to Amyloid β-protein. Amyloid β-peptides are the primary components of the amyloid plaques found in the brains of individuals with Alzheimer’s disease. In the brain, APP is primarily cleaved by β-secretase, while in other tissues it is cleaved by α-secretase, followed by γ-secretase. The presence of the APOE4 allele is associated with a higher likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s dementia later in life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which cognitive function is primarily assessed by the intersecting pentagons task in the...

    Correct

    • Which cognitive function is primarily assessed by the intersecting pentagons task in the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Constructional praxis

      Explanation:

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about the tau protein? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the tau protein?

      Your Answer: It is the main component of neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      The defining feature of Lewy body dementia is the presence of alpha-synuclein protein clumps known as Lewy bodies.

      Tau and Tauopathies

      Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.

      When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.

      The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving and weight gain. What would be your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response? ...

    Correct

    • What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response?

      Your Answer: A drug unbound in the plasma

      Explanation:

      The biological response to a drug can only be triggered by the portion of the drug that is not bound.

      Drug Distribution in the Body

      After being absorbed, drugs can distribute to different parts of the body, such as fat, plasma, muscle, brain tissue, and glands like the thyroid. However, for a drug to have an effect, it must be present in the plasma in an unbound state. This means that the drug molecules are not attached to any other molecules and are free to interact with their target receptors. The concentration of unbound drug in the plasma is what determines the drug’s effectiveness and potential side effects. Therefore, understanding a drug’s distribution in the body is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. Your history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not a result of muscarinic blockade? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a result of muscarinic blockade?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Blurred vision occurs as a result of muscarinic blockade, which causes the pupils to dilate (mydriasis).

      Receptors and Side-Effects

      Histamine H1 Blockade:
      – Weight gain
      – Sedation

      Alpha 1 Blockade:
      – Orthostatic hypotension
      – Sedation
      – Sexual dysfunction
      – Priapism

      Muscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
      – Agitation
      – Delirium
      – Memory impairment
      – Confusion
      – Seizures

      Muscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
      – Dry mouth
      – Ataxia
      – Blurred vision
      – Narrow angle glaucoma
      – Constipation
      – Urinary retention
      – Tachycardia

      Each receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a child's records. They have been diagnosed with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder.

      Under which axis of the DSM IV does this fall?

      Your Answer: Axis IV

      Correct Answer: Axis II

      Explanation:

      The DSM-IV-TR uses a multi-axial system to diagnose mental disorders. Axis II covers developmental and personality disorders, such as autism and borderline personality disorder. Axis I covers clinical syndromes, like depression and schizophrenia. Axis III includes physical conditions that may contribute to mental illness, such as brain injury of HIV/AIDS. Axis IV rates the severity of psychosocial stressors, such as job loss of marriage, that may impact the person’s mental health. Finally, Axis V rates the person’s level of functioning, both currently and in the past year, to help the clinician understand how the other axes are affecting the person and what changes may be expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about...

    Incorrect

    • How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about one's own group and applying those beliefs to oneself?

      Your Answer: Tribal stigma

      Correct Answer: Self-stigma

      Explanation:

      Self stigma is when an individual adopts negative societal beliefs about their condition. On the other hand, courtesy stigma (also known as stigma by association) is a form of stigma directed towards individuals such as family members and healthcare professionals who are associated with those who have mental health issues.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In an elderly patient, which medication is the most probable cause of delirium?...

    Correct

    • In an elderly patient, which medication is the most probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Compared to other opioids, pethidine has a greater likelihood of causing delirium. This is possibly due to its tendency to build up in the body when kidney function is compromised, leading to the formation of a metabolite that possesses anticholinergic properties.

      Risk Factors for Delirium

      Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is a true statement about valproate? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about valproate?

      Your Answer: The risk of congenital malformations is dose dependent

      Explanation:

      Valproate can pass through the placenta, increasing the likelihood of birth defects. The extent of risk during pregnancy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by the dosage. Children who were exposed to valproate in the womb may have a lower IQ, with those aged 6 showing an average decrease of 7-10 points compared to those exposed to other antiepileptic medications.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Research has suggested that dysfunction of oligodendrocytes and the myelin sheath may play...

    Correct

    • Research has suggested that dysfunction of oligodendrocytes and the myelin sheath may play a role in the development of schizophrenia. Can you provide information on the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Increases the transmission of electrochemical impulses

      Explanation:

      Myelin sheaths are composed of cells containing fat that act as insulation for the axons of neurons. These cells run along the axons with gaps between them called nodes of Ranvier. The fat in the myelin sheath makes it a poor conductor, causing impulses to jump from one gap to the next, which increases the speed of transmission of action potentials.

      The white matter of the brain gets its whitish appearance from the myelin sheath, which is made up of glial cells. Oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system and Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system are responsible for forming the myelin sheath. The electrical impulse jumps from one node to the next at a rapid rate of up to 120 meters per second, which is known as saltatory conduction.

      Glycoproteins play a crucial role in the formation, maintenance, and degradation of myelin sheaths. Recent studies suggest that dysfunction in oligodendrocytes and myelin can lead to changes in synaptic formation and function, resulting in cognitive dysfunction, a core symptom of schizophrenia. Additionally, there is evidence linking oligodendrocyte and myelin dysfunction with abnormalities in dopamine and glutamate, both of which are found in schizophrenia. Addressing these abnormalities could offer therapeutic opportunities for individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium?

      Your Answer: Labile mood

      Correct Answer: Disturbance in the sleep-wake cycle

      Explanation:

      The disturbance of the sleep-wake cycle is frequently linked to delirium, which can cause problems such as daytime drowsiness, nighttime restlessness, trouble falling asleep, excessive sleepiness during the day, of staying awake throughout the night. These sleep-wake disruptions are so prevalent in delirium that they have been suggested as a fundamental requirement for diagnosis according to the DSM-V (2013).

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy,...

    Correct

    • When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy, which antipsychotic medication should be avoided due to its potential to induce seizures?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications have been associated with an increased risk of seizures, with second generation antipsychotics (SGAs) being more likely to cause seizures than first generation antipsychotics (FGAs). Among SGAs, clozapine has the highest risk of inducing seizures, while olanzapine and quetiapine also carry a relatively high risk. On the other hand, risperidone, haloperidol, and aripiprazole are considered to be relatively low risk in terms of inducing seizures. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risks and monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      276.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimetre of the cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Axon terminals 20-75

      Correct Answer: Nodes of Ranvier

      Explanation:

      The nodes of Ranvier contain Na+/K+ ATPases, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers and a high density of Na+ channels. The estimated concentration of sodium channels in the node is of ∼1500/μm2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      18.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (5/8) 63%
Neurosciences (2/5) 40%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (0/2) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/2) 0%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Basic Psychological Processes (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (1/2) 50%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Passmed