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  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with acne, hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. Which...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with acne, hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. Which of the following hormonal changes will hint towards the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

      Your Answer: Raised LH:FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      The European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) developed and enlarged the diagnosis of PCOS, requiring two of three features: anovulation or oligo-ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology (PCOM) seen on ultrasound. Finally the Androgen Excess Society defined PCOS as hyperandrogenism with ovarian dysfunction or polycystic ovaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the...

    Correct

    • A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D resistant rickets

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D supplementation

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents with bilateral, erythematous and bulging tympanic membranes. His parents claim the boy also has hearing difficulty. Otoscopy reveals an effusion on the left side. Doctors suggest to perform Weber and Rinne tests. Which of the following is consistent with a left-sided middle ear effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weber’s localising to left, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right

      Explanation:

      When a child does not hear the sound in the middle during Weber test, it means they either they have a conductive hearing loss on the side they hear the sound, or a sensorineural hearing loss on the opposite side. Rinne’s test helps distinguish between the two. In this particular case, the hearing loss is most probably conductive due to the middle ear effusion. Therefore, Weber’s test should be localised to the left and Rinne’s should be positive on the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Efavirenz

      Explanation:

      The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 10 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Explanation:

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 15 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 17 - An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus

      Explanation:

      The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 21 - An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 22 - A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed

      Explanation:

      Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Still's disease)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Still’s disease is a rare systemic disorder that accounts for 10% of cases of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). The aetiology is unknown. It affects boys and girls equally up to the age of five years of age, following which, girls are more commonly affected. Clinical features of this disease include:- Fever- Maculopapular rash- Myalgia- Generalised lymphadenopathy- Hepatosplenomegaly- Pericarditis and pleuritis Laboratory investigations reveal raised ESR and CRP. There can also be coexisting neutrophilia and thrombocytosis. Anti-nuclear autoantibodies and rheumatoid factor are usually negative in patients with Still’s disease.On the rare case that they are present, their titres are generally low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes

      Explanation:

      Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including| atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 25 - A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 26 - A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water

      Explanation:

      Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 27 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 28 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly result in which of the following complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (FHCS), or perihepatitis, is a chronic manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is described as an inflammation of the liver capsule, without the involvement of the liver parenchyma, with adhesion formation accompanied by right upper quadrant pain. A final diagnosis can be made through laparoscopy or laparotomy via direct visualization of violin string-like adhesions or through hepatic capsular biopsy and culture. FHCS is a complication of PID. Microorganisms associated with PID are thought to spread in one of three ways:-Through spontaneous ascending infection, microbes from the cervix or vagina travel to the endometrium, through the fallopian tubes, and into the peritoneal cavity. Complications include endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, pelvic peritonitis, and perihepatitis.-Microbes can also spread via lymphatic channels such as an infection of the parametrium from an intrauterine device.-Finally, the hematogenous spread is also possible such as with tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 30 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
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