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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Antithrombin Deficiency

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      592.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling in the left knee joint. On examination, the left knee is swollen, tender and erythematous. The patient is booked for joint aspiration, and a diagnosis of pseudogout is made following the aspiration.

      Which types of crystals would be seen in the joint aspirate to lead to this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amorphous crystals

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterised by crystal deposition in the affected joints. The deposition of urate crystals causes gout, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals cause pseudogout. The crystals can be distinguished microscopically because urate crystals are negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals, whilst calcium pyrophosphate crystals are positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      67
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?...

    Correct

    • Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle in the posterior forearm. It spans between the elbow and base of the little finger. This muscle belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group, along with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi muscles.

      Like all the muscles of this compartment, extensor carpi ulnaris works as an extensor of the wrist. Moreover, due to its specific course, this muscle also acts to adduct the hand.

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), a branch of the deep division of the radial nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle is provided by branches of the radial recurrent and posterior interosseous arteries, which stem from the radial and ulnar arteries, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      18.4
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • An unrelated medical condition brings a 28-year-old asthmatic man to the Emergency Department. When you look over his meds, you notice that he is taking Theophylline to help with his asthma.

      Which of the following medicines should you NOT prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitor that raises theophylline levels in the blood. As a result, co-prescribing theophylline should be avoided.

      The medicines that typically impact theophylline’s half-life and plasma concentration are listed in the table below:
      Drugs that increase the levels of theophylline in the blood
      Drugs that lower theophylline levels in the blood
      Calcium channel blockers e.g. Verapamil
      Fluconazole
      Cimetidine
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbital
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    A graph that is a useful summary...

    Correct

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      A graph that is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line.

      Your Answer: Scatterplot

      Explanation:

      A scatterplot is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line. It gives a good visual picture of the relationship between the two variables, and aids the interpretation of the correlation coefficient or regression model. Each unit contributes one point to the scatterplot, on which points are plotted but not joined. The resulting pattern indicates the type and strength of the relationship between the two variables.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      63.3
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 32-old woman comes for a follow-up visit after being discharged on medications...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-old woman comes for a follow-up visit after being discharged on medications for her newly diagnosed epilepsy. She now complains of a tremor in her arm when she holds a tray in her hand. You examine the patient and notice she has developed postural tremors.

      Which of the following medications for epilepsy is most likely responsible for this tremor?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      A postural tumour is observed when a person maintains a position against gravity, such as holding the arms outstretched. (The patient holding her tray against gravity)

      Sodium valproate is the most commonly prescribed medication for epilepsy. It is commonly associated with tremors as valproate-induced tremors occur in around 6-45% of patients. The tremors are commonly postural, but a resting tremor may also occur.

      Approximately 25% of patients taking sodium valproate are found to develop a tremor within 3-12 months of initiating therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      100.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into...

    Correct

    • A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into cardiac arrest. What changes in the ECG may indicate the incident of cardiac arrest in this patient?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves and broad QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Severe hyperkalaemia can result in a heart attack or a life-threatening arrhythmia.

      T waves become narrow-based, pointed, and tall if hyperkalaemia is not treated.

      The QRS complex widens and eventually merges with the T wave, resulting in a classic sine-wave electrocardiogram. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole are likely to follow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      11.2
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding benzylpenicillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding benzylpenicillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin is resistant to bacterial beta-lactamases.

      Correct Answer: If meningococcal disease is suspected, benzylpenicillin should be given before transfer to hospital.

      Explanation:

      Benzylpenicillin (although inactivated by bacterial beta-lactamases) is effective for many streptococcal (including pneumococcal), gonococcal, and meningococcal infections and also for anthrax, diphtheria, gas gangrene, leptospirosis, and treatment of Lyme disease. If meningococcal disease (meningitis with non-blanching rash or meningococcal septicaemia) is suspected, benzylpenicillin should be given before transfer to hospital, so long as this does not delay the transfer; benzylpenicillin is no longer the drug of first choice for pneumococcal meningitis. Although benzylpenicillin is effective in the treatment of tetanus, metronidazole is preferred. Benzylpenicillin is inactivated by gastric acid and absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is poor and therefore it must be given by injection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      27.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the hip joint?

      Your Answer: Hamstrings and gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      For hip extension, the gluteus maximus and hamstring muscles work together. To compensate for gluteus maximus weakness, the hamstring frequently acts as the primary hip extensor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      14.9
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following describes the pulse pressure: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the pulse pressure:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic - diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      During systole, the pressure in the left ventricle increases and blood is ejected into the aorta. The rise in pressure stretches the elastic walls of the aorta and large arteries and drives blood flow. Systolic pressure is the maximum arterial pressure during systole. During diastole, arterial blood flow is partly maintained by elastic recoil of the walls of large arteries. The minimum pressure reached before the next systole is the diastolic pressure. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II increases Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A young male has presented to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe palpitations, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A 12-lead ECG is recorded, and it shows a narrow complex tachycardia that points to a diagnosis of supraventricular tachycardia.

      Vagal manoeuvres are attempted but are unsuccessful in eliminating the arrhythmia. The next action plan is to use a drug to revert to sinus rhythm.

      Out of the following, which is the first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is an intermittent tachycardia (HR > 100 bpm) and has the following characteristics:
      1. Sudden onset/offset (Contrast with sinus tachycardia)
      2. Electrical activity originates above the ventricle (Contrast with ventricular tachycardia)
      3. Produces narrow QRS complex (<120ms) The most common cause of PSVT is Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT), most common in young women with a mean age onset of 32 years old. There are recurrent episodes of palpitations, and most of the episodes spontaneously. Sometimes, some vagal manoeuvres are required:
      1. Valsalva manoeuvre
      2. immersing the face in ice-cold water
      3. carotid sinus massage.

      If PSVT keeps persisting or is causing severe symptoms, the treatment of choice is intravenous adenosine. The patient’s ECG should be continuously monitored throughout the treatment.

      The recommended doses in adults are as follows:
      – Initial dose of adenosine is 6 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give another dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      – If unsuccessful, give a further dose of adenosine 12 mg by rapid IV bolus
      The latest ALS guidelines advocate 18 mg for the third dose, whereas the BNF/NICE guidelines advocate 12 mg.

      If adenosine fails or is contraindicated, intravenous verapamil can be used as an alternative, but it should be avoided in patients recently treated with beta-blockers.

      Synchronized electrical cardioversion will be necessary with signs of hemodynamic instability or if drug treatment has failed to restore sinus rhythm.
      Recurrent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia can be treated by catheter ablation or prevented with drugs such as flecainide, sotalol, diltiazem, or verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the following conditions may cause elevated potassium levels, except for which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bartter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive renal tubular disorder characterized by hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hyperreninemia with normal blood pressure. The underlying kidney abnormality results in excessive urinary losses of sodium, chloride, and potassium.

      Bartter’s syndrome does not cause an elevated potassium level, but instead causes a decrease in its concentration (hypokalaemia). The other choices are causes of hyperkalaemia or elevated potassium levels.

      Renal failure, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), congenital adrenal hyperplasia, renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, tumour syndrome, and acidosis are non-drug causes of hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, drugs that can cause hyperkalaemia include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Incorrect

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
      A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The following all cause a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve EXCEPT...

    Incorrect

    • The following all cause a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetal haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      A decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (and hence increased ease of dissociation), shown by a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, is caused by a fall in pH, a rise in PCO2(the Bohr effect) and an increase in temperature. These changes occur in metabolically active tissues such as in exercise, and encourage oxygen release. The metabolic by-product 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3 -DPG) also causes a right shift; 2, 3 -DPG may also be raised in chronic anaemia, chronic lung disease, or at high altitude. Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) binds 2, 3 -DPG less strongly than does adult haemoglobin (HbA), and so the HbF dissociation curve lies to the left of that for HbA, reflecting its higher oxygen affinity. This helps transfer oxygen from mother to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Adenosine has a half-life of approximately: ...

    Incorrect

    • Adenosine has a half-life of approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 - 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      Adenosine stimulates A1-adenosine receptors and opens acetylcholine sensitive K+ channels, increasing K+ efflux. This hyperpolarises the cell membrane in the atrioventricular node and, by inhibiting the calcium channels, slows conduction in the AVN. As it has a very short duration of action (half-life only about 8 – 10 seconds), most side effects are short lived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Airway resistance is predominantly determined by the radius of the airway as described by Poiseuille's law.

      Explanation:

      Flow through airways is described by Darcy’s law which states that flow is directly proportional to the mouth-alveolar pressure gradient and inversely proportional to airway resistance. Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. Parasympathetic stimulation causes bronchoconstriction and sympathetic stimulation causes bronchodilation, but mediated by beta2-adrenoceptors. Muscarinic antagonists e.g. ipratropium bromide cause bronchodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 55 year old man presents to ED complaining of leg weakness. Your...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man presents to ED complaining of leg weakness. Your colleague has examined the patient and suspects femoral nerve palsy. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see on examination of this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of hip extension

      Explanation:

      Damage to the femoral nerve results in weakness of hip flexion and knee extension and loss of sensation over the anterior thigh and the anteromedial knee, medial leg and medial foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.

      Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.
      The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - In a ward round, you come across a patient's treatment chart prescribed an...

    Incorrect

    • In a ward round, you come across a patient's treatment chart prescribed an antibiotic to fight his infection. This antibiotic is a protein synthesis inhibitor.

      Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA and thus preventing initiation of protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin inhibits cell wall peptidoglycan formation by binding the D-Ala-D-Ala portion of cell wall precursors.

      Penicillins and cephalosporins are the major antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. They inactivate transpeptidases that help cross-link peptidoglycans in cell walls.

      Metronidazole and the other 5-nitroimidazole agents inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by forming toxic free radical metabolites in the bacterial cell that damage DNA.

      Ciprofloxacin inhibits prokaryotic enzymes topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks inactivated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a class 1B antidysrhythmic; combines with fast Na channels and thereby inhibits recovery after repolarization, resulting in decreasing myocardial excitability and conduction velocity. However, in ischaemic areas, where anoxia causes depolarisation and arrhythmogenic activity, many Na+ channels are inactivated and therefore susceptible to lidocaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings.

      Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.

      Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk.

      Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema.

      Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.

      Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.

      Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.
      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.

      Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.

      In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.

      A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A patient presents with an adducted eye at rest which cannot abduct past...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with an adducted eye at rest which cannot abduct past the midline, which of the following cranial nerves is most likely to be affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      Abducens nerve palsies result in a convergent squint at rest (eye turned inwards) with inability to abduct the eye because of unopposed action of the rectus medialis. The patient complains of horizontal diplopia when looking towards the affected side. With complete paralysis, the eye cannot abduct past the midline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He was commenced on antibiotics 4 days earlier, but his condition has worsened. There is a documented history of penicillin allergy, and the GP prescribed erythromycin.

      Erythromycin exert its pharmacological effect by binding to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

      Explanation:

      Macrolides are bacteriostatic antibiotics. They act by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibit translocation, therefore, inhibiting protein synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.

      The action most effective at minimizing spread to other patients is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      Alcohol hand gel is not effective against Clostridium Difficile spores. Hand washing with soap and water is very essential for healthcare workers who come in contact with it.

      Wearing an apron and gloves, and isolation to a side room are important contact precautions. They are, however, ineffective if hand washing is neglected.

      Although oral vancomycin is the first-line treatment for C. difficile associated diarrhoea, it will not limit patient to patient spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate...

    Incorrect

    • The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate for a patient who is in a lot of pain. You discover that you are unable to prescribe it due to a contra-indication after evaluating the patient.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age under 12 years

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a mild opiate that can be used to treat mild to moderate pain when other pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen have failed. It can also be used to treat diarrhoea and coughs that are dry or painful.

      The use of all opioids is contraindicated for the following reasons:
      Respiratory depression (acute)
      Patients who are comatose
      Head injury (opioid analgesics impair pupillary responses, which are crucial for neurological evaluation)
      Intracranial pressure has risen (opioid analgesics interfere with pupillary responses vital for neurological assessment)
      There’s a chance you’ll get paralytic ileus.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Because of the significant risk of respiratory side effects in children under the age of 12, it is not recommended for children under the age of 12.

      Patients of any age who have been identified as ultra-rapid codeine metabolizers (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizers)

      Because codeine can pass through breast milk to the baby and because mothers’ ability to metabolise codeine varies greatly, it is especially dangerous in breastfeeding mothers.

      If other painkillers, such as paracetamol or ibuprofen, fail to relieve acute moderate pain in children over the age of 12, codeine should be used. In children with obstructive sleep apnoea who received codeine after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, a significant risk of serious and life-threatening adverse reactions has been identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 32 - What is the earliest physiological effect that causes postural hypotension: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the earliest physiological effect that causes postural hypotension:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fall in central venous pressure

      Explanation:

      When autonomic reflexes are impaired or intravascular volume is markedly depleted, a significant reduction in blood pressure occurs upon standing, a phenomenon termed Postural Hypotension (orthostatic hypotension). Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness, syncope, and even angina or stroke. When autonomic reflexes are impaired, blood pressure falls progressively after standing because the gravitational pooling of blood in the legs cannot be compensated by sympathetic vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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  • Question 33 - A 29 year old woman is unable to invert her foot after sustaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is unable to invert her foot after sustaining an injury to her leg playing water-polo. Which of the following nerves are most likely damaged:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      Inversion of the foot is primarily produced by the tibialis anterior and the tibialis posterior muscles, innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the tibial nerve respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 34 - A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.

      Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration

      Explanation:

      PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
      It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.

      The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
      Increased plasma phosphate concentration
      Decreased plasma calcium concentration

      PTH release is inhibited by:
      Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
      Hypomagnesaemia

      The main actions of PTH are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 35 - Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A large granular lymphocyte that kills by inducing target cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      Natural killer (NK) cells are cytotoxic CD8 positive cells that lack the T-cell receptor. They are large cells with cytoplasmic granules. NK cells are designed to kill target cells that have a low level of expression of HLA class I molecules, such as may occur during viral infection or on a malignant cell. NK cells do this by displaying several receptors for HLA molecules on their surface. When HLA is expressed on the target cell these deliver an inhibitory signal into the NK cell. When HLA molecules are absent on the target cell this inhibitory signal is lost and the NK cell can then kill its target. In addition, NK cells display antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. In this, antibody binds to antigen on the surface of the target cell and then NK cells bind to the Fc portion of the bound antibody and kill the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B vaccines are prepared from the viral surface antigen. The recombinant vaccine is now the most widely used vaccine and induces a sufficient antibody response in 90% of individuals.
      Indications for hepatitis B vaccination include:
      All health care professional’s
      Other professions with occupational risks (foster carers, staff of custodial institutions, morticians etc)
      Babies of mothers with hepatitis B during pregnancy
      Close family contacts of a case or carrier
      IV drug abusers
      Individuals with haemophilia
      Individuals with chronic renal failure
      Sex workers and individuals with frequently changing sexual partners
      The vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees C as freezing destroys its efficacy. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly, either into the deltoid region (preferred) or anterolateral thigh. The buttock should be avoided as it reduces the efficacy of the vaccine.
      The standard regime is to give 3 doses of the vaccine, the 1stand 2ndone month apart and the 2ndand 3rdsix months apart. Antibody titres should be tested 2 to 4 months after the primary course.
      A peak titre above 100 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response and implies long-term immunity. A peak titre between 10-100 mIU/ml is regarded as a low response and a peak titre of less than 10mIU/ml is regarded as a poor response.
      There is no substantiated association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 37 - Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones: ...

    Incorrect

    • Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
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  • Question 38 - Regarding the management of gout, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the management of gout, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol may cause an acute attack of gout when first started.

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol is a treatment for the prevention of gout. The initiation of treatment may precipitate an acute attack, and should be covered with an NSAID or colchicine, continued for at least one month after the hyperuricaemia has been corrected. Colchicine is not indicated for long term prevention of gout. NSAIDs are first line for acute gout; colchicine is an alternative in whom NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated or ineffective (including in people taking anticoagulants). Ibuprofen is not recommended for acute gout, given it has only weak anti-inflammatory properties; naproxen, diclofenac or indometacin are indicated instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 39 - For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the...

    Incorrect

    • For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the first-line treatment:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC shock

      Explanation:

      If there are any adverse symptoms, immediate cardioversion with synchronized DC shock is recommended. If cardioversion fails to stop the arrhythmia and the symptoms persist, amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10–20 minutes should be administered before attempting another cardioversion. The loading dosage of amiodarone is followed by a 24-hour infusion of 900 mg administered into a large vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 40 - A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and damages the nerve that innervates opponens digiti minimi.
      The opponens digiti minimi muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Opponens digiti minimi is a triangular-shaped muscle in the hand that forms part of the hypothenar eminence. It originates from the hook of the hamate bone and the flexor retinaculum and inserts into the medial border of the 5thmetacarpal.
      Opponens digiti minimi is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery.
      Opponens digiti minimi draws the fifth metacarpal bone anteriorly and rotates it, bringing the fifth digiti into opposition with the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 41 - Which of the following medications may lessen warfarin's anticoagulant effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications may lessen warfarin's anticoagulant effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin will decrease the level or effect of warfarin by affecting hepatic/intestinal enzyme CYP3A4 metabolism.
      Metronidazole will increase the level or effect of warfarin by affecting hepatic enzyme CYP2C9/10 metabolism.
      NSAIDs, when given with Warfarin, increase anticoagulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds

  • Question 42 - Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligopeptides are broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on the brush border.

      Explanation:

      Digestion of dietary protein begins in the stomach where pepsin hydrolyses protein to polypeptides, and continues in the duodenum where pancreatic proteases (trypsin and chymotrypsin) continue the process of hydrolysis forming oligopeptides. These are further broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on luminal membrane epithelial cells. Free amino acids are absorbed across the apical membrane by secondary active transport coupled with Na+transport into the cell. Amino acids cross the basal membrane into the capillaries by facilitated diffusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
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  • Question 43 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She complains of headaches and intermittent fever. The fever starts with intense chills, then feels very hot, followed by profuse sweating. She is drowsy and is running a fever of 39.0°C. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes or rash seen. She has hepatosplenomegaly.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a protozoal infection of red blood cells and the liver. It is caused by the parasite belonging to the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted by the female mosquito Anopheles.

      Several species with distinct features:
      P. vivax/P. ovale
      P. malariae
      P. falciparum

      The common symptoms of malaria are:

      Paroxysms of fever – a cyclical occurrence of:
      1) a cold phase – the patient experiences intense chills
      2) a hot stage – the patient feels extremely hot
      3) a sweating stage – the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely
      – Fever recurs at regular intervals (48hrs, 72hrs): Variable by species of Plasmodium

      Anaemia (RBC infection)
      – Severity varies by species of Plasmodium
      – Haemolytic: sometimes jaundice

      Splenomegaly

      Also nonspecific symptoms:
      – Sweating
      – fatigue
      – malaise
      – arthralgias
      – headache
      – Sometimes cough, vomiting, diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
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  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and intermittent fevers. Thick and thin films are sent to the lab and a diagnosis is made of malaria. The patient is started on treatment but his condition deteriorates and he develops jaundice, renal failure and haemoglobinuria.
      Which of the following is the MOST likely causative organism? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is an infectious disease transmitted by female of theAnophelesgenus of mosquito. It is a parasitic infection caused by the genusPlasmodium. Five species are recognized as causing disease in humans;Plasmodium falciparum,Plasmodium ovale,Plasmodium vivax,Plasmodium malariaeandPlasmodium knowlesi.
      The classic symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, a cyclical occurrence of a cold phase, where the patient experiences intense chills, a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot and finally a sweating stage, where the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely. On examination the patient may show signs of anaemia, jaundice and have hepatosplenomegaly without evidence of lymphadenopathy.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious form and is responsible for most deaths. Severe or complicated malaria is suggested by the presence of impaired consciousness, seizures, hypoglycaemia, anaemia, renal impairment, respiratory distress and spontaneous bleeding.
      Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely type in this case in view of the presentation.
      Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of blackwater fever, which is caused byPlasmodium falciparum. An autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine causes haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice and renal failure. This can be fatal.
      The benign malarias: P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale are usually treated with chloroquine. A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection. Artesunate is the drug treatment of choice for Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Quinine can still be used where artesunate is not available. Often combination therapy with drugs such as doxycycline or fansidar is also required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
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  • Question 46 - Which of the following is considered the best source of information if a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is considered the best source of information if a research on the national hospital MRSA rates is being done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hospital Episode Statistics

      Explanation:

      Hospital Episode Statistics (HES) is a data warehouse containing details of all admissions, outpatient appointments and A and E attendances at NHS hospitals in England.

      Each HES record contains a wide range of information about an individual patient admitted to an NHS hospital, including:
      – clinical information about diagnoses and operations
      – patient information, such as age group, gender and ethnicity
      – administrative information, such as dates and methods of admission and discharge
      – geographical information such as where patients are treated and the area where they live

      Some benefits of HES include:
      – monitor trends and patterns in NHS hospital activity
      – assess effective delivery of care
      – support local service planning
      – reveal health trends over time
      – determine fair access to health care

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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  • Question 47 - CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures: ...

    Incorrect

    • CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arachnoid granulations

      Explanation:

      From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 48 - A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Paediatric ER for acute seizures. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Paediatric ER for acute seizures. She has been convulsing for the past 18 minutes now and was already two doses of lorazepam in the ambulance. Now, you prepare a phenytoin infusion to abolish the seizures.

      According to the APLS algorithm, what dose of phenytoin is advised for a convulsing child at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes

      Explanation:

      Advanced paediatric life support (APLS) recommends phenytoin as the first choice for second-line anticonvulsant in a patient that continues to seize ten minutes after the second dose of the first-line anticonvulsant (benzodiazepine). (step 3 of the APLS algorithm)

      The recommended dose of phenytoin infusion is up at 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes. If the patient has already taken phenytoin as maintenance therapy or is allergic to phenytoin, then a phenobarbitone infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 49 - A 68-year-old patient shows Low calcium levels and is on dialysis for chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient shows Low calcium levels and is on dialysis for chronic kidney disease.

      What percentage of total serum calcium is in the form of free or ionised Ca 2+?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately half of total serum calcium is in the free or ionised Ca2+ state, 40% is attached to plasma proteins (mostly albumin), and the remaining 10% is in complexes with organic ions like citrate and phosphate. The ionized form is the only one that works.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old man presents with a red, hot, swollen great toe. A diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a red, hot, swollen great toe. A diagnosis of acute gout is made. His past medical history includes heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to use in the treatment of his gout? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.
      Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.
      Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.
      Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.
      NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/2) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
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