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  • Question 1 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Incorrect

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Galactocele

      Correct Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order to reach the eye?

      Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Correct Answer: Optic canal

      Explanation:

      The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The canal is located in the sphenoid bone; it is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone is bounded behind by a ridge, which forms the anterior border of a narrow, transverse groove, the chiasmatic groove (optic groove). The groove ends on either side in the optic foramen, which transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the orbital cavity. Compared to the optic nerve, the ophthalmic artery is located inferolaterally within the canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation...

    Correct

    • A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase-MB

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An intern is attempting to put in an arterial line in an ICU...

    Correct

    • An intern is attempting to put in an arterial line in an ICU patients left foot. Which is the best site to feel for the pulsation of the dorsalis pedis artery in the foot?

      Your Answer: Just lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The dorsalis pedis artery is the continuation of the anterior tibial artery. The pulse of the posterior tibial artery, which comes from the posterior compartment of the leg, may be felt behind the medial malleolus just lateral to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125...

    Correct

    • The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125 ml, with a tidal volume of 500 ml and pa(CO2) of 40 mm Hg. The dead space was determined by Fowler's method. If we assume that the patient's lungs are healthy, what will his mixed expired CO2 tension [pE(CO2)] be?

      Your Answer: 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      According to Bohr’s equation, VD/VT = (pA(CO2) − pE(CO2))/pA(CO2), where pE(CO2) is mixed expired CO2 and pA(CO2) is alveolar CO2pressure. Normally, the pa(CO2) is virtually identical to pA(CO2). Thus, VD/VT = (pa(CO2)) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2). By Fowler’s method, VD/VT= 0.25. In the given problem, (pa(CO2) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2) = (40 − pE(CO2)/40 = 0.25. Thus, pE(CO2) = 30 mmHg. If there is a great perfusion/ventilation inequality, pE(CO2) could be significantly lower than 30 mm Hg, and the patient’s physiological dead space would exceed the anatomical dead space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Correct

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and nausea for 2 days. He also complained of intolerance to bright light and loud sounds. Lumbar puncture showed glucose < 45 mg/dl, protein > 5 mg/dl and neutrophil leucocytosis. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of meningitis can be carried out with examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a lumbar puncture (LP). In a case of bacterial meningitis, the CSF analysis will show:

      – Opening pressure: > 180 mmH2O

      – White blood cell count: 10–10 000/μl with neutrophil predominance

      – Glucose: < 40 mg/dl – CSF glucose to serum glucose ratio: < 0.4 – Protein: > 4.5 mg/dl

      – Gram stain: positive in > 60%

      – Culture: positive in > 80%

      – Latex agglutination: may be positive in meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli and group B streptococci

      – Limulus, lysates: positive in Gram-negative meningitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Abdomen

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following key features will be seen in an organ undergoing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following key features will be seen in an organ undergoing atrophy?

      Your Answer: A greater number of autophagic vacuoles

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is characterised by the breakdown of intracellular components along with organelles and packing them into vacuoles known as autophagic vacuoles. This is an adaptive response that separates the damaged cellular structures from the rest of the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In the kidney, the macula densa is an area of closely packed specialized cells lining the wall of...

    Incorrect

    • In the kidney, the macula densa is an area of closely packed specialized cells lining the wall of the:

      Your Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      In the kidney, the macula densa is an area of closely packed specialised cells lining the region of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) lying next to the glomerular vascular pole. The cells of the macula densa are sensitive to the ionic content and water volume of the fluid in the DCT, producing signals that promote renin secretion by other cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past...

    Correct

    • A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The patient’s renal excretion of potassium would be expected to:

      Your Answer: Rise, since acidosis increases the affinity of the aldosterone receptor for aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Fall, since tubular secretion of potassium is inversely coupled to acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis is a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation (hypoventilation) increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood’s pH (a condition generally called acidosis). Secretion of acid and potassium by the renal tubule are inversely related. So, increased excretion of H+ during renal compensation for respiratory acidosis will result in decreased secretion (or increased retention) of potassium ions, with the result that the body’s potassium store rises. An increase in K+ excretion would be associated with renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. The filtered load of K+depends only on K+ plasma concentration and glomerular filtration rate, not on plasma pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Correct

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen of Monroe

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:

      Your Answer: Proteolytic activation of fibrinogen

      Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukocyte adhesion

      Explanation:

      Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin

      Explanation:

      Gastric blood flow is increased by vagal stimulation, gastrin, histamine and acetylcholine as they stimulate gastric section and the production of vasodilator metabolites. Acetylcholine and histamine also have a direct action on the gastric arterioles. Similarly, gastric blood flow is reduced by inhibitors of secretion – catecholamines, secretin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/5) 40%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (3/5) 60%
Head & Neck (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Physiology (3/6) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/2) 0%
General (1/2) 50%
Passmed