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  • Question 1 - A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She...

    Correct

    • A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She complained of abdominal cramps, with nausea and vomiting. Shortly after she suddenly developed weakness, blurring of vision, difficulty in swallowing and breathing. Which of the following organisms is most likely associated with fatal food poisoning?

      Your Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      C. botulinum is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, spore-forming bacterium. It is an obligate anaerobe, meaning that oxygen is poisonous to the cells. Only botulinum toxin types A, B, E, and F cause disease in humans. Types A, B, and E are associated with foodborne illness. Botulism poisoning can occur due to preserved or home-canned, low-acid food that was not processed using correct preservation times and/or pressure. Signs and symptoms of foodborne botulism typically begin between 18 and 36 hours after the toxin gets into the body, but can range from a few hours to several days, depending on the amount of toxin ingested. Botulinum that is produced by Clostridium botulinum can cause respiratory and muscular paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      32
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Exotoxin

      Correct Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Methicillin

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute meningitis is a medical emergency. All suspects should receive their first dose of antibiotics immediately and be transferred to hospital as soon as possible. If facilities for blood culture and/or lumbar puncture (LP) are immediately available, they should be performed before administration
      of the first dose of antibiotics (see contraindications to LP below). Neither procedure should lead to a significant delay in antibiotic administration.
      Administer ceftriaxone 80-100 mg/kg (maximum 2 g, 12 hourly) intravenously. The intramuscular or intraosseous route can be used if there is no vascular access. Penicillin allergy is not a contraindication to ceftriaxone in acute meningitis (C-1). Omit ceftriaxone only if there has been documented ceftriaxone anaphylaxis. Give chloramphenicol 25 mg/kg (maximum 500 mg) intravenously instead, if available. Administer adequate analgesia and transfer the patient immediately to hospital, detailing all administered
      medication in the referral letter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      20.7
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Anthrax is an infection caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores have been used...

    Correct

    • Anthrax is an infection caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores have been used as a biological warfare weapon. What is the drug of choice in treating anthrax infection?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Early antibiotic treatment of anthrax is essential. A delay may significantly lessen the chances for survival of the patient. Treatment for anthrax infection include large doses of intravenous and oral antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin), doxycycline, erythromycin, vancomycin, or penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - An 26-year-old man sought admission due to persistent non-bloody diarrhoea. The patient is...

    Correct

    • An 26-year-old man sought admission due to persistent non-bloody diarrhoea. The patient is HIV-positive. Examination of stool sample showed numerous acid-fast cysts. Which of the following organism is the most likely cause of diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium parvum

      Explanation:

      Cryptosporidium parvum is one of several species that causes cryptosporidiosis, a parasitic disease of the mammalian intestinal tract. Primary symptoms of C. parvum infection are acute, watery, and non-bloody diarrhoea. C. parvum infection is of particular concern in immunocompromised patients, where diarrhoea can reach 10–15 l per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      16
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      40.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and chills. She has a history of recurrent UTI and complains of dysuria and urinary frequency. Urinary white blood cell count is >200 cell/high power field. If urine culture is performed, what is the most likely organism that will grow?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The pathogen that most likely causes recurrent urinary tract infection in young women are E. coli, Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      23.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum 10 days ago. He received gentamicin and ampicillin post-op. 2 days after he was discharged from the hospital, he was readmitted because of high grade fever and chills. His blood culture grew Gram-negative bacilli. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. It is part of the normal flora of the human colon and is generally a commensal, but can cause infection if displaced into the bloodstream or surrounding tissue following surgery, disease, or trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      44.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the...

    Correct

    • A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the disease most likely through which port of entry?

      Your Answer: Respiratory tract

      Explanation:

      Blastomycosis disease is a fungal infection acquired through inhalation of the spores. It caused by the organism Blastomyces dermatitidis and manifests as a primary lung infection in about 70% of cases. The onset is relatively slow and symptoms are suggestive of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol was given to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Ketoconazole is a synthetic imidazole antifungal drug used primarily to treat fungal infections. It inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol by blocking demethylation at the C14 site of the ergosterol precursor. Amphotericin B and Nystatin impair permeability of the cell membrane. Flucytosine interferes with DNA synthesis, while the target of griseofulvin is the microtubules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (7/9) 78%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
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