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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Bed rest

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently.

      Physical examination was done and the following are her results:
      Temperature is 38.7 deg C
      Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg
      Pulse is 84/min

      Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness.
      Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted.
      Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes.
      Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding.

      The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
      Leukocyte esterase = positive
      Nitrites = negative
      Bacteria = none
      White blood cells = 15/hpf

      Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative.

      Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patient’s diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
      HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.

      HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.

      Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate induction of labour

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan findings corresponds to 8 weeks of gestations.
      On laboratory examination, her urine culture came out as Staphylococcus saprophyticus resistant to amoxicillin, but she is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which among the following is considered the best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Augmentin

      Explanation:

      In the given case, the patient should be treated with Augmentin.
      Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurs in about 2 % to 10 % of all pregnancies and if left untreated, about 30% of this will develop acute cystitis and the other 50% will develop acute pyelonephritis.

      Escherichia coli is the most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria, which consists more than 80% of the isolate and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus accounts for about 5-10% of isolates associated with uncomplicated UTI. Escherichia coli is a very common normal flora found in the gastrointestinal tract and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus is a commonly found normal flora in genital tract and perineum.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria has found to be associated with low birth weight and preterm birth, and it is found that a short term antibiotic treatment will help in improving the fetal outcomes in cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria or uncomplicated UTI. Hence, all cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria and uncomplicated UTI during pregnancy are recommended to be treated with a five day course of oral antibiotics as this is normally sufficient in pregnant women.

      Drug of choice in asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of E. coli are either:
      – Cephalexin 500 mg oral twice a day for 5 days or
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg orally twice daily for 5 days or
      – Trimethoprim 300 mg oral doses daily for 5 days (avoided during first trimester and in those pregnant women with established folate deficiency, low dietary folate intake, or for women taking other folate antagonists).
      – Amoxicillin + clavulanate 500 + 125 mg oral, twice daily for 5 days if < 20 weeks of gestation.
      Note: In view of childhood outcomes – (ORACLE II trial and 7 year follow-up), which showed an associated increase in necrotising enterocolitis, functional impairment (low), and cerebral palsy, it is recommended that amoxicillin / clavulanate is only used if no alternative treatment is available(if >20 weeks of gestation).

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities ) in case of Staphylococcus saprophyticus infection is as follows:
      Cephalexin 500 mg oral doses twice a day for 5 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of infection with Pseudomonas suggest Norfloxacin 400 mg oral twice daily for 5 days, then repeat MSSU 48 hours after the treatment is completed.

      In case of Group B streptococcus as a single organism, Penicillin V 500 mg oral twice daily for 5 days. If the patient is hypersensitive to penicillin give Cephalexin 500 mg orally twice a day for 5 days were immediate hypersensitivity is excluded. If immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin is noticed, then Clindamycin 450 mg three times daily for 5 days is advised.

      Amoxicillin is found more effective in treating UTIs caused by organisms which are resistant to the drug in vitro because of its high concentrations attainable in urine. However, a study shows that amoxicillin-resistant organisms do not respond to amoxicillin alone but Augmentin [amoxicillin clavulanate] is found to cure urinary tract infection irrespective of the amoxicillin susceptibility of the organism in vitro. Of the patients infected with amoxicillin-resistant organisms, 80% were cured by augmentin and only 10% with infection by amoxicillin-resistant organisms were cured by amoxicillin.

      Now a days Amoxicillin is not preferred as the common treatment option for UTI due to increasing incidences of Escherichia coli resistance, which accounts majority of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. Clavulanic acid which is a beta-lactamase inhibitor works synergistically with amoxicillin to extend spectrum antibiotic susceptibility. This makes UTIs less likely to be resistant to the treatment with amoxicillin clavulanate compared to amoxicillin alone.
      Ciprofloxacin and Gentamicin which are the other antibiotic choice considered otherwise also should be avoided in pregnancy as they comes under FDA pregnancy Category C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Suction dilation and curettage for retained placenta

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines? ...

    Incorrect

    • The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines?

      Your Answer: None of the options given

      Correct Answer: Attitude of the foetus

      Explanation:

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

    She is at 38 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

      She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour.

      On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated.

      Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer: The fetal head is still just above the ischial spines,

      Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: High rate of infant respiratory distress syndrome

      Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
      She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.

      Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.

      From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aminoglycoside

      Correct Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?

      Your Answer: Breech, breech

      Correct Answer: Cephalic, cephalic

      Explanation:

      The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Obstructed labour.

      Correct Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.

      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.

      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Renal agenesis

      Correct Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Placenta previa

      Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

    6 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

      6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.

      On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.

      On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).

      Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.

      An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:

      Baseline 140/min
      Baseline variability 1/min
      Accelerations None evident
      Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes

      Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.

      What would be the next best line management?

      Your Answer: Further fetal scalp pH assessment.

      Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.

      Explanation:

      The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).

      This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.

      As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.

      Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she found out that one of her students has been recently diagnosed with rubella, but the diagnosis was not confirmed by serologic tests. Upon interview, it was noted that her last rubella vaccination was when she was 12 years old.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step to perform?

      Your Answer: Give her a booster dose of MMR vaccine

      Correct Answer: Check rubella serology

      Explanation:

      Rubella infection during pregnancy may lead to miscarriage, intrauterine fetal demise, premature labour, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of developing complications is highest if the infection is contracted within the first 12 weeks of gestation.

      In those cases in which a pregnant woman has been exposed to a suspected rubella case, a specimen of blood should be tested as soon as possible for the measurement of rubella-specific IgG antibodies. If it is positive, then the woman was likely to be immune and could be reassured. If it is negative, a determination rubella-specific IgG and rubella-specific IgM antibodies should be obtained in 3 weeks to exclude an asymptomatic primary rubella infection.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer: Free T3

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or  sneezing.

      Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commencement of tocolysis

      Correct Answer: Administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
      PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
      – Preterm labor
      – Cord prolapse
      – Placental abruption
      – Chorioamnionitis
      – Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
      – Limb positioning defects
      – Perinatal mortality
      Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
      a) Maternal corticosteroids
      Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
      Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
      A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
      Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
      It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
      As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
      Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient.

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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer: Cullen's sign

      Correct Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion and denies any chest pain. She is concerned as she has always been very athletic and is unable to maintain the same degree of exercise she was accustomed prior to becoming pregnant. Patient also informed she has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication.

      On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal and her lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?

      Your Answer: Order an ECG

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation and physical examination findings are most consistent with physiologic dyspnea, which is common during pregnancy. This breathing difficulty which is due to an increase in the tidal volume of lung will present itself as an increased awareness of breathing and can occur as early as the end of first trimester. Any minute increase in the ventilation occurs during pregnancy can make patients feel as if they are hyperventilating and contribute to the feeling of dyspnea.

      Patient should be reassured and educated regarding these normal changes of pregnancy, also should be counselled to modify her exercise regimen accordingly to her changed tolerance.

      Systolic ejection murmurs are due to increased blood flow across the aortic and pulmonic valves which is a normal finding in a pregnancy. So there is no need for this patient to be referred to a cardiologist or to order an ECG.
      About 1 in 6400 pregnancies present with pulmonary embolism and there will be clinical evidence of DVT in many of these cases. Dyspnea, chest pain, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, and tachycardia are the most common symptoms of PE and physical examination shows accentuated pulmonic closure sound, rales, or a friction rub. If there is a strong suspicion for PE, the patient should be followed up with a ventilation-perfusion scan, which will confirm PE if presented with large perfusion defects and ventilation mismatches.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. 

      Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect.  Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. 

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: Would it be okay if your mother stepped out of the room so we can talk about your results?

      Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
      Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
      Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
      Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
      The most likely cause for her presentation is?

      Your Answer: Viral hepatitis A.

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
      The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
      Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
      All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
      On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
      Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD.

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  • Question 25 - One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of...

    Incorrect

    • One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.

      Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: She should not breast feed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Explanation:

      No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.

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  • Question 26 - Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated only in the first trimester of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
      A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight
      Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
      Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.

      Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.

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  • Question 27 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer: The cervix is open

      Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

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  • Question 28 - A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Testing for hepatitis B immunity (anti-HBs), and immunization if needed

      Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.

      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer: Give acyclovir to the neonate after delivery

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

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  • Question 30 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.

      Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.

      Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.

      As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.

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  • Question 32 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Treatment with acyclovir will reduce the rate of recurrent disease but is contraindicated in pregnancy because of adverse effects on the foetus.

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.

      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.

      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer: A prolapsed 14/15 intervertebral disc.

      Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

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  • Question 34 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer: The risk of neonatal herpes is much higher with recurrent maternal infection compared with primary infection

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

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  • Question 35 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your office complaining of increased frequency and urgency along with dysuria.

      Further investigations established the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and the culture results are pending. The patient also mentioned a history of allergic reaction to penicillin which manifest as a rash.

      For treating this patient, which one of the following would be the antibiotic of choice?

      Your Answer: Aminoglycosides

      Correct Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      The best antibiotic of choice for empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy is cephalexin. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin-clavulanate are second and third in-line respectively.
      Patients allergic to penicillin, which is manifested as a rash can also be safely treated with cephalexin. But cephalosporins are not recommended if the presentation of allergic reaction to penicillin was anaphylactic, instead they should be treated with nitrofurantoin.

      NOTE– Asymptomatic bacteriuria, such as >10 to power of 5 colony count in urine culture of an asymptomatic woman in pregnancy, should best be treated with a one week course of antibiotics, followed by confirming the resolution of infection via a urine culture repeated 48 hours after the completion of treatment.

      Amoxicillin without clavulanate is recommended only in cases were the susceptibility of the organism is proven.

      Macrolides like clarithromycin are usually not recommended for the treatment of UTI.

      Aminoglycosides are coming under category D drugs should be avoided during pregnancy, unless there is a severe indication of gram negative sepsis.

      Tetracycline, due to their potential teratogenic effects, are contraindicated in pregnancy.

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  • Question 36 - A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min.

      On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin..

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.

      Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.

      Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.

      Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.

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  • Question 37 - A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inevitable miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.

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  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy.

      On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation.

      Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Correct Answer: Retained products of conception

      Explanation:

      Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
      The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
      Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.

      Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.

      Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.

      Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.

      Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.

      It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 39 - The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Lower abdominal pain and groin pain due to stretch of round ligaments

      Correct Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      Visual disturbances although very common during pregnancy are not a normal sign. Physicians should have a firm understanding of the various ocular conditions that might appear pregnancy or get modified by pregnancy. In addition, it is very important to be vigilant about the rare and serious conditions that may occur in pregnant women with visual complaints. Prompt evaluation may be required and the immediate transfer of care of the patient may help saving the lives of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 40 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Correct

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

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  • Question 41 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Fetal CTG

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 42 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

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  • Question 43 - A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your...

    Correct

    • A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.

      A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
      Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.

      Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia­ hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
      The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.

      Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
      After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.

      This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.

      – Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
      – Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.

      Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:

      If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.

      If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.

      If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.

      If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.

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  • Question 44 - A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?

      Your Answer: CTG will reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities

      Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG

      Explanation:

      Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.

      Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.

      Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.

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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: An inevitable abortion

      Correct Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

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  • Question 46 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer: Braxton Hick's contraction

      Correct Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

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  • Question 47 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

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  • Question 48 - A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina.

      She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?

      Your Answer: Monilial vaginitis.

      Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.

      Explanation:

      This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.

      An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.

      Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.

      Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.

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  • Question 49 - A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.

      Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HbA1c in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant

      Explanation:

      Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.

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  • Question 50 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Correct

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

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  • Question 51 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Start leflunomide during first trimester

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

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  • Question 52 - A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis

      Correct Answer: Observation, steroids and antihypertensives

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.

      As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.

      Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.

      Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.

      Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.

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  • Question 53 - A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Bruising

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria.

      Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.

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  • Question 54 - A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity.  She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain. 

      On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min. On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding. Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative. 

      Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Family history of malignancy

      Correct Answer: History of ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
      Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
      Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.

      Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.

      In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion.  Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.

      Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc.  However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.

      A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.

      Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.

      Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.

      Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.

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  • Question 55 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.

      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonography at 10 to 12 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

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  • Question 56 - Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
      Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations.

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  • Question 57 - A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep...

    Correct

    • A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
      Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
      Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
      The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed.

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  • Question 58 - The chance of multiple pregnancy increases: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chance of multiple pregnancy increases:

      Your Answer: If first pregnancy

      Correct Answer: With advancing maternal age

      Explanation:

      Dizygotic twin pregnancies are known to increase with age of the mother. Naturally conceived twins are thought to occur in a 0.3% rate in women under 25 years, 1.4% between 25 and 34, 3% between 34 and 39, and 4.1% in women in their 40s or over. We also know that at least 50% of all twin pregnancies are conceived through ART and that this proportion is probably higher for women in their 40s.

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  • Question 59 - Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Post-maturity

      Explanation:

      Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37

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  • Question 60 - The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:...

    Incorrect

    • The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:

      Your Answer: Progesterone deficiency

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations

      Explanation:

      Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.

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  • Question 61 - APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Muscle tone

      Correct Answer: Blood pH

      Explanation:

      Elements of the Apgar score include colour, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiration. Apgar scoring is designed to assess for signs of hemodynamic compromise such as cyanosis, hypoperfusion, bradycardia, hypotonia, respiratory depression or apnoea. Each element is scored 0 (zero), 1, or 2. The score is recorded at 1 minute and 5 minutes in all infants with expanded recording at 5-minute intervals for infants who score 7 or less at 5 minutes, and in those requiring resuscitation as a method for monitoring response. Scores of 7 to 10 are considered reassuring.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.

      Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.

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  • Question 63 - A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Complication of a corpus luteum cyst.

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection.

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
      A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
      Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
      will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
      A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
      It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
      Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection.

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  • Question 64 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

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  • Question 65 - A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview,...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview, it was noted that she was a regular alcohol drinker and has been using contraceptive pills for the past 3 years.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate advice for the patient?

      Your Answer: Stop alcohol now

      Explanation:

      Alcohol exposure during pregnancy results in impaired growth, stillbirth, and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol deficits are lifelong issues with no current treatment or established diagnostic or therapeutic tools to prevent and/or ameliorate some of these adverse outcomes.

      Alcohol readily crosses the placenta with fetal blood alcohol levels approaching maternal levels within 2 hours of maternal intake. As there is known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy, and alcohol is a known teratogen that can impact fetal growth and development during all stages of pregnancy, the current recommendation from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Centre for Disease Control (CDC), Surgeon General, and medical societies from other countries including the Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada all recommend complete abstinence during pregnancy.

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  • Question 66 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Correct

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit.  She is feeling well and has no concerns.  The patient had daily episodes of nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks of her pregnancy and those symptoms resolved 2 weeks ago.  She has had no pelvic pain or vaginal bleeding, and is yet to feel any fetal movements. 

      Her first pregnancy ended in a cesarean delivery at 30 weeks of gestation due to breech presentation, complicated with severe features of preeclampsia.  Patient has no other significant chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and have not reported of any medication allergies. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 112/74 mm of Hg and BMI is 24 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is found to be 155/min. The uterus is gravid and nontender and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. 

      Which of the following is considered to be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Preeclampsia prevention
      Preeclampsia is defined as a new-onset hypertension along with other features like proteinuria &/or end-organ damage at >20 weeks of gestation.
      Patients with the following histories are at high risk for preeclampsia:
      – Those with prior history of preeclampsia
      – Those with chronic kidney disease
      – Those with chronic hypertension
      – Those with diabetes mellitus
      – Multiple gestation
      – Autoimmune disease
      Patients belonging in the following criteria are at moderate risk for preeclampsia:
      – Obesity
      – Advanced maternal age
      – Nulliparity

      Preeclampsia is considered as the leading cause for maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. This is due to its increased risk for complications such as stroke, placental abruption and disseminated intravascular coagulation. It is most likely caused due to abnormal vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation, which thereby results in placental infarction and ischemia. The condition can be effectively prevented by the administration of low-doses of aspirin at 12 weeks of gestation.

      Patients with predisposing factors, such as chronic kidney disease, chronic hypertension and a history of preeclampsia, particularly with severe features or at <37 weeks gestation as in this patient, are at higher risk for developing preeclampsia.
      In high risk patients, the only therapy proven to decrease the risk of preeclampsia is a daily administration of low-dose aspirin, as it inhibits platelet aggregation and helps in preventing placental ischemia. Treatment is initiated at 12 – 28 weeks of gestation, optimally before 16 weeks and is continued till delivery.

      Betamethasone is a drug used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in patients who are prone to imminent risk of preterm delivery before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, if the patient develops pre-eclampsia requiring an urgent preterm delivery betamethasone will be indicated.

      High-doses (4 mg) of folic acid is indicated in patients with high risk for a fetus with neural tube defects, as in those who have a history of any prior pregnancies affected or those patients who use any folate antagonist medications. In the given case patient is at average risk and requires only a regular dose of 0.4 mg which is found in most prenatal vitamins.

      Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone is indicated in pregnant patients with prior spontaneous preterm delivery due to preterm prelabor rupture of membranes, preterm labor, etc to decrease the possible risk for any recurrence. In patients who underwent preterm delivery due to other indications like preeclampsia with severe features, fetal growth restriction, etc it is not indicated.

      Vaginal progesterone is administered to decrease the risk of preterm delivery in patients diagnosed with a shortened cervix, which is usually identified incidentally on anatomy ultrasound scan done between 16 and 24 weeks of gestation. This patient is currently at her 14 weeks, so this is not advisable.

      Patients at high risk for pre-eclampsia, like those with preeclampsia in a prior pregnancy, are advised to start taking a daily low-dose aspirin as prophylaxis for prevention of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.

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  • Question 68 - A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Rupture uterus

      Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma

      Explanation:

      A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.

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  • Question 69 - During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because? ...

    Incorrect

    • During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?

      Your Answer: Ease of repair

      Correct Answer: Less extension of the incision

      Explanation:

      Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 70 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.

      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

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  • Question 71 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Incorrect

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.

      Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fine needle aspiration cytology

      Correct Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

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  • Question 72 - A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for her first antenatal visit.

      This is her second pregnancy.

      She is worried about Down syndrome risk in her foetus.

      From the following options listed, select the safest test (i.e., the one with least risk of causing adverse consequences in the pregnancy) that will provide an accurate diagnosis regarding the presence or absence of Trisomy 21 in the foetus.

      Your Answer: Cordocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation.

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      Nuchal translucency scans and maternal screening tests simply aid in determining a risk percentage for the presence of Trisomy 21, but an accurate diagnosis cannot be reached.

      Chorionic villous biopsy (CVB), amniocentesis, and cordocentesis, are all prenatal diagnostic tests that can provide a definitive diagnosis regarding the presence of foetal abnormalities.

      Amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks of gestation is associated with the lowest risk for miscarriage and hence is the safest test and should be recommended to the mother (correct answer).

      The miscarriage risk from a CVB is at least double the risk following amniocentesis.

      Nowadays, cordocentesis is rarely used for sampling of foetal material to detect chromosomal abnormalities as the test poses an even higher risk of miscarriage compared to the other procedures discussed above.

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  • Question 73 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cease ramipril and start irbesartan

      Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

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  • Question 74 - Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat serology in one week

      Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.

      Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.

      Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.

      Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.

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  • Question 75 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

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  • Question 76 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

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  • Question 77 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

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  • Question 78 - A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation.

      On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
      Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
      Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.

      In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
      The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
      It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
      Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
      Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning.

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  • Question 79 - A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.

      All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies

      Explanation:

      Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.

      Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.

      Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

      Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.

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  • Question 80 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

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  • Question 81 - A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29 weeks gestation with a high fever, flank pain, and an abnormal urinalysis. You order blood and urine cultures, a CBC, electrolyte levels, and a serum creatinine level. You also start her on intravenous fluids and intravenous cefazolin. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment she is clinically improved but continues to have fever spikes. What would be the most appropriate management at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue current management

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical problem that complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15% of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteraemia- A common finding is thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes followed by hypothermia- Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72 hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that time- Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical improvement at 48-71 hours is lacking. If this is the case, the patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abscess. Ultrasonography, plain radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable methods, depending on the clinical setting.

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  • Question 82 - Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart...

    Incorrect

    • Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.

      You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight

      Explanation:

      If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
      – excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
      – suspected baby neglect or abuse
      – suspected domestic violence
      – a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.

      A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.

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  • Question 83 - Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function

      Explanation:

      These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

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  • Question 84 - A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.

      On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.

      Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.

      Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.

      Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
      1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
      a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
      b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
      2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
      BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
      3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
      BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
      4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
      Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
      5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
      Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.

      To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
      – Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
      reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
      – Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
      – Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
      – Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
      – Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis.

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  • Question 85 - Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxine requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine requirement during pregnancy will increases by 25 to 30 percent, which is seen as early as fifth week of pregnancy.

      Children born to those women whose hypothyroidism was inadequately treated during pregnancy, are at higher risk for developing neuropsychiatric impairments.

      When a woman who is on thyroxine is planning to conceive, they are advised to increase their thyroxine dose by 30 percent at the time of confirmation of pregnancy.

      During pregnancy TSH also should be monitored at every 8 to 10 weeks, with necessary dose adjustments.

      Dose requirements of thyroxine will return to pre-pregnancy level soon after delivery and it will not change according to whether the mother is breastfeeding or not.

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  • Question 86 - Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
      – Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
      – Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
      – Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
      – Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
      – Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of  medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
      – Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
      – Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
      – Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
      – Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp.

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  • Question 87 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.

      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.

      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

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  • Question 88 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

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  • Question 89 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

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  • Question 90 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

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  • Question 91 - A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)

      Explanation:

      Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.

      Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.

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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 93 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.

      The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
      – An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
      – Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.

      Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
      The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy.

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  • Question 94 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

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  • Question 95 - A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.

      On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
      Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.

      Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
      – Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
      – Moderate to severe dehydration.
      – Ketosis
      – Electrolyte abnormalities.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
      – Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
      – Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
      – Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
      – Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
      – Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.

      Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.

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  • Question 96 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Incorrect

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

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  • Question 97 - A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract injury

      Explanation:

      Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.

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  • Question 98 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

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  • Question 99 - A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.

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  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.

      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (20/75) 27%
Passmed