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  • Question 1 - A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
      Tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
      Urine Protein 2+
      Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?

      Your Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy

      HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 2 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma penis

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are considered low-risk types of HPV, meaning they are less likely to cause serious health issues such as cancer. Instead, these genotypes are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL). LSIL can correspond cytologically to Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) 1, which is a precancerous condition of the cervix. Therefore, the correct answer is Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL). High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (HSIL) and Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN) 2 and 3 are more likely to be caused by high-risk HPV genotypes that are associated with a higher risk of developing cervical cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis is not typically associated with HPV genotypes 6 and 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 3 - A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs.

      Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome

      Explanation:

      The 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma with chemotherapy. After one day of starting treatment, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs. These symptoms are most likely due to tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), which is a potentially fatal condition that can occur as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias.

      TLS occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of tumour cells, leading to the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia, along with hyponatraemia. The symptoms of TLS can include confusion, muscle cramps, and other neurological symptoms.

      In this case, the introduction of chemotherapy likely triggered the development of TLS in the patient. It is important to be aware of this condition and to take steps for its prophylactic management. One such measure is the administration of rasburicase prior to chemotherapy, which helps reduce the risk of TLS by metabolizing uric acid to a more soluble form for renal excretion.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in the development of Burkitt lymphoma. Treatment for Burkitt lymphoma involves chemotherapy, which can lead to a rapid response and potentially trigger TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer: It is associated with the development of Burkitt's lymphoma.

      Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Human herpesvirus eight, also known as Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), is indeed sexually transmitted. This virus is associated with the development of Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as other conditions such as primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman’s disease. Antibodies to HHV-8 are found in more than 50% of the general population, indicating widespread exposure to the virus. However, it is not associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma or myeloproliferative disorders. Therefore, the true statements regarding human herpesvirus eight are:
      – It is sexually transmitted.
      – Antibodies are found in more than 50% of the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Diphtheria is a bacterial infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. It is characterized by the formation of grey membranes on the mucous membranes of the throat and tonsils, which can cause difficulty breathing (dyspnoea). This patient’s recent travel to India is significant because diphtheria is more common in developing countries, including India.

      In contrast, infectious mononucleosis (also known as mono) is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and typically presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. Acute follicular tonsillitis is an infection of the tonsils usually caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pyogenes. Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes that presents with a characteristic rash.

      Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by a severe decrease in the number of white blood cells, which can lead to increased susceptibility to infections. However, the presence of grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils is not a typical finding in agranulocytosis.

      Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and recent travel history to India, the most likely diagnosis is diphtheria. It is important to confirm the diagnosis with laboratory tests and start appropriate treatment, which may include antibiotics and antitoxin therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Chicken pox - five to seven days

      Correct Answer: Mumps - 14-18 days

      Explanation:

      The correct match for the disease with its corresponding incubation period is as follows:
      – Mumps: 14-18 days

      Explanation:
      – Chicken pox: The correct incubation period for chickenpox is 5-7 days, not 7-21 days.
      – Hand foot and mouth disease: The correct incubation period for hand foot and mouth disease is 2-6 days, not 7-10 days.
      – Measles: The correct incubation period for measles is 5-7 days, not 14-21 days.
      – Rubella: The correct incubation period for rubella is 7-10 days, not 14-21 days.
      – Mumps: The correct incubation period for mumps is 14-18 days, which matches the given information.

      Understanding the correct incubation periods for different diseases is crucial for proper diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      72.7
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  • Question 7 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are considered low-risk types of HPV, meaning they are less likely to cause serious health issues such as cancer. These genotypes are commonly associated with low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL), which are abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix that are considered to be less severe.

      On the other hand, high-risk types of HPV, such as genotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33, are more likely to cause high grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (HSIL) and cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2 and 3, which are more severe abnormalities in the cervical cells that can progress to cervical cancer if left untreated.

      Therefore, the association of HPV genotypes 6 and 11 with LSIL highlights the importance of HPV genotyping in determining the risk of developing cervical abnormalities and guiding appropriate management and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic plaques behind the elbows and knees

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      638.9
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. When the virus reactivates, it can cause painful vesicular lesions in a specific dermatome area, such as the ear canal in this case. The high-grade fever may be present due to the infection.

      Varicella zoster is the virus responsible for chickenpox, not shingles. Measles is caused by the measles virus and presents with a characteristic rash, but not tender lesions in a specific area. Herpes simplex virus can cause cold sores or genital herpes, but not the specific presentation described in the question. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to various opportunistic infections, but it does not typically present with tender lesions in a specific area like herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      281.8
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  • Question 10 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Epithelial cells

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Epithelioid cells are a type of macrophage that have enlarged and flattened out, resembling epithelial cells. In the context of tuberculosis, these cells are found in granulomas, which are structures formed by the immune system in response to the infection. The presence of epithelioid cells in a cervical biopsy from a patient with tuberculosis indicates the formation of granulomas in the tissue as part of the body’s defense mechanism against the infection. This finding is important for diagnosing tuberculosis and monitoring the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
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Pathology (3/10) 30%
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