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Question 1
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A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?
Your Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has lost almost 1 litre of blood. You suspect uterine atony as the likely cause, and have bimanually compressed the uterus. Which of the following pharmacological interventions should follow?
Your Answer: Misoprostol 1000 micrograms rectally
Correct Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection
Explanation:In the management of postpartum haemorrhage, it is essential that the bleeding is first mechanically prevented, followed by the administration of oxytocic drugs, which cause the uterine smooth muscle to contract and clamping off bleeding sites in the endometrium. The drug of choice in the treatment protocol of PPH is 5 units of syntocin, a synthetic oxytocin uterotonic, by slow intravenous infusion. This is particularly suitable in the case of uterine atony. Other uterotonics, misoprostol, carboprost, ergometrine, can be used, but are not as effective in an emergency setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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The vulva is mainly supplied by which one of the following vessels?
Your Answer: Pudendal artery
Explanation:Vulva is defined by the area which is located outside the female vagina and comprises of the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, mons pubis and Bartholin glands. It is supplied by the vestibula branch of pudental artery.
Inferior hemorrhoidal artery supplies the lower part of the rectum.
Femoral artery is the continuation of external iliac artery and supplies most of the leg. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which spinal segment is the lumbar plexus derived from?
Your Answer: L1-L5
Correct Answer: T12-L4
Explanation:The lumbar plexus is formed via contributions from the T12-L4 spinal cord segment. The plexus is responsible for the motor and sensory innervation of portions of the lower extremities and some parts of the lower abdomen and pelvis. Nerves arising from the plexus include the Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral nerve, obturator, and nerve to the lumbosacral trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for the past two years has recently been prescribed Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive before she leaves for Uni. What could the main concern be?
Your Answer: Combined contraceptive may reduce Lamotrigine levels and increase seizure risk
Explanation:Lamotrigine, a drug used to treat epilepsy, is less effective when taken with combined oral contraceptives. The oestrogen component of the pill decreases the circulating levels of Lamotrigine, increasing the risk of seizures. The combination is therefore classified as a UKMEC 3, as the risk of the drug combination may outweigh the benefit. As an alternative, the progesterone-only pill, depo progesterone, Mirena or the copper IUD may be considered as there is no restriction on concomitant use. Lamotrigine is not metabolised through cytochrome P450 like other antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine and phenytoin, neither is it an enzyme inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy for irregular menstrual bleeding. Histology shows hyperplasia without atypia. Following a discussion the patient declines any treatment but agrees she will try and lose weight. What is the risk of progression to endometrial cancer over 20 years?
Your Answer: 10-15%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The risk of developing endometrial carcinoma is less than 5% over 20 years if the endometrium shows hyperplasia without atypia.
There are 2 types of Endometrial Hyperplasia:
1. Hyperplasia without atypia*
2. Atypical hyperplasiaMajor Risk Factors:
Oestrogen (HRT)
Tamoxifen
PCOS
Obesity
Immunosuppression (transplant) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?
Your Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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Turner's syndrome is characterised by :
Your Answer: Streak ovaries
Explanation:Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Adductor longus
Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle:
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus
Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius
Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles
Roof: Fascia Lata -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one month history of vulval soreness and lumps. She smokes several packs of tobacco cigarettes a day. A biopsy confirms vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. What is her risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma?
Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN) is a non-invasive squamous type lesion that carries a 15% chance of developing into squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, or chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis and lichen planus, can cause changes in the basal cells of the vulvar epithelium. Other risk factors of VIN include multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, and immunocompromised states. Diagnosis is by clinical examination and a biopsy confirms neoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative after exposure to a child with rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy.
On laboratory investigation, rubella infection is confirmed as repeated serology testing shows not only a positive lgM, but also a rising titers of lgG.
Among the following next steps in management, which one is considered to be the most appropriate?Your Answer: Termination of the pregnancy
Explanation:Antenatal screening for rubella IgG is a routine recommended for all pregnant women at their first visit. All pregnant women who have a history of contact with rubella or any clinical features consistent with rubella –like illness should be screened for the presence of rising antibody titre and / or rubella specific IgM. Serological confirmation is mandatory for diagnosing rubella.
As in this case scenario, positive lgM for rubella indicates active rubella infection, in such cases it is recommended to repeat the test. If lgM is still positive, it confirms rubella infection. No further testing from another laboratory is required.
The risk for fetal infection and damage is higher if rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, which is 85% in the first two months of pregnancy and 50 -80% in the third month. Therefore, termination of pregnancy is usually recommended in this situation. NHIG has been used in trials for prophylaxis and prevention of congenital rubella syndrome after contact to a case with rubella infection, but the results have been discouraging, therefore, it is not advisable.
In the given case, rubella infection has been established already, so NHIG will not be of any benefit as primary prevention.
Rubella-containing vaccines like MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine are contraindicated throughout pregnancy, it should be avoided; and women who remain susceptible to rubella should receive MMR vaccine postpartum.
Risk of fetal infection and/or fetal damage or for development of congenital rubella syndrome is related to the timing of maternal infection. Cases with Primary infection is found to be in higher risk
In cases of asymptomatic re-infection with a good history of previous positive serology, even though it is difficult to quantify, the risk of fetal infection has been reported to be < 5 percent. Congenital rubella syndrome following maternal re-infection is considered rare particularly if re-infection occurs after 12 weeks. If the clinical picture is typically of rubella or if possibility of previous immunity is inconclusive based on serology, then the risk is assumed to be the same as that of primary infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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After 18 months of frequent sexual activity, a young couple was unable to conceive.
Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for infertility treatment?Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Explanation:Approximately 75–80% of patients with PCOS will ovulate after Clomiphene citrate. Although there appears to be discrepancy between ovulation and pregnancy rates, life-table analysis of the largest and most reliable studies indicates a conception rate of up to 22% per cycle in those ovulating on CC.
Pelvic TB causes tubal occlusion by scarring leading to infertility. Once occlusion occurs, IVF is usually the only option for conception. This is also the case for women with Turner syndrome.
Azoospermia maybe treated with surgery or hormonal therapy based on the cause but the success rate is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer: Membranous layer of superficial fascia
Correct Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The perineal membrane (also known as the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm) separates the deep and superficial perineal pouches i.e. it is the inferior border of the deep pouch and superior border of the superficial pouch. The deep perineal pouch is the space therefore between superior and inferior layers of the urogenital diaphragm The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm is the superior border
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding progesterone production in the ovary is true?
Your Answer: Synthesised from cholesterol by Luteal cells
Explanation:After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatous
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?
Your Answer: 1-2 hours before ovulation
Correct Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation
Explanation:Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed below have been linked to obesity in children.
Select the syndrome with which the other clinical symptoms in this patient are most likely to be linked.Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts. The name polycystic ovary syndrome describes the numerous small cysts (fluid-filled sacs) that form in the ovaries. However, some women with this disorder do not have cysts, while some women without the disorder do develop cysts.
The symptoms of PCOS may include:
– Missed periods, irregular periods, or very light periods
– Ovaries that are large or have many cysts
– Excess body hair, including the chest, stomach, and back (hirsutism)
– Weight gain, especially around the belly (abdomen)
– Acne or oily skin
– Male-pattern baldness or thinning hair
– Infertility
– Small pieces of excess skin on the neck or armpits (skin tags)
– Dark or thick skin patches on the back of the neck, in the armpits, and under the breastsThe so-called Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a fairly rare condition characterized by six cardinal signs, namely obesity, atypical retinitis pigmentosa, mental deficiency, genital dystrophy, polydactylism and familial occurrence.
Froehlich syndrome is characterized by increased or excessive eating that leads to obesity, small testes, and a delay in the onset of puberty. It is also common for children with Froehlich syndrome to experience the delay in physical growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder that occurs when your body makes too much of the hormone cortisol over a long period of time. Cortisol is sometimes called the “stress hormone” because it helps your body respond to stress. Cortisol also helps. maintain blood pressure. regulate blood glucose, also called blood sugar.
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by short stature, a round face, short neck, and shortened bones in the hands and feet. Intelligence usually ranges from low normal to mentally retarded. Headaches, weakness, tiring easily, lethargy, cataracts and blurred vision or hypersensitivity to light may also be present.
This patient’s condition can only be explained by PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient attends clinic with a vaginal prolapse. On examination the vaginal prolapse is visible 1.5cm above the plane of the hymen. According to the POPQ classification what grade is this prolapse?
Your Answer: Grade 3
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:This is a grade 1 prolapse
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as
Your Answer: The number of still births and deaths within 24 hours of delivery per year
Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births
Explanation:WHO defines perinatal death as the number of still births and death in the first week of life per 1000 births.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 21
Correct
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You see a diabetic women in preconception clinic. Which of the following is appropriate advice regarding folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 5 mg daily until week 12
Explanation:The aim of pre-pregnancy counselling is to achieve the best possible glycaemic control before pregnancy and to educate diabetic women about the implications of pregnancy. Patient information leaflets about pregnancy should make clear the risks of pregnancy in diabetes, and include advice to take high dose (5 mg) folic acid pre-conception and for the first 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Iliac Spine
Correct Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:
Your Answer: 10 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, concentrations of hCG in the blood and urine usually double every 24 hours. Levels of the hormone typically peak at around 10 weeks, decline until 16 weeks, then remain constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:
Your Answer: Pubis symphysis
Explanation:The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection?
Your Answer: enterococci
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:E.coli is the most common cause of UTI. Other organisms include pseudomonas, proteus and klebsiella.
NICE guidelines: UTI in pregnancy (updated in July 2015)
Send urine for culture and sensitivity from all women in whom UTI is suspected before starting empirical antibiotics and 7 days after antibiotic treatment is completed.
Prescribe an antibiotic to all women with suspected UTI (awaiting culture result is not advised)
Although local antibiotic resistance needs to be taken into account the following is advised in terms of antibiotic selection:
1. Nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS (or 100 mg MR BD) for 7 days.
2. Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, for 7 days
Give folic acid 5 mg OD if it is the 1st trimester
Do not give trimethoprim if the woman is folate deficient, taking a folate antagonist, or has been treated with trimethoprim in the past year.
3. Cefalexin 500 mg BD (or 250 mg 6qds) for 7 days -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?
Your Answer: Bacteroides fragilis
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.
E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Placenta previa
Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.
Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?
Your Answer: 2.5
Explanation:X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?
Your Answer: C6 and C7
Correct Answer: C5 and C6
Explanation:Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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