-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe what seems to be an episode of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, after she came home from an all-night party around 6 am. Her father has epilepsy and one of her cousins sometimes has episodes of blank spells. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely in this case?
Your Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Explanation:In people with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, symptoms can be brought on by: -Sleep deprivation-Psychological stress-Alcohol and drug use-Noncompliance of medication-Flickering lights such as strobe lights -Menses-Time of day – usually mornings
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer: L2
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome
Explanation:The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Explanation:Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request an EEG
Explanation:The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)
Explanation:Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition of speech and developmental delay. She babbles but does not speak any identifiable words. Her receptive language is relatively preserved but she is severely delayed in all developmental domains and is not yet walking. On examination, she is an excitable girl who laughs frequently and is keen to crawl around the room and engage in social interaction. Her eye contact is good. She makes flapping movements of the hands when she is excited. Her purposeful upper limb movements are rather ataxic. What is the most likely explanation for this child’s speech and language delay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angelman syndrome
Explanation:Angelman syndrome is a rare genetic and neurological disorder caused by deletion or abnormal expression of the UBE3A gene and characterized by severe developmental delay and learning disabilities| absence or near absence of speech| inability to coordinate voluntary movements (ataxia)| tremulousness with jerky movements of the arms and legs and a distinct behavioural pattern characterized by a happy disposition and unprovoked episodes of laughter and smiling. Although those with the syndrome may be unable to speak, many gradually learn to communicate through other means such as gesturing. In addition, children may have enough receptive language ability to understand simple forms of language communication. Additional symptoms may occur including seizures, sleep disorders and feeding difficulties. Some children with Angelman syndrome may have distinctive facial features but most facial features reflect the normal parental traits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes macrocephaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection
Explanation:While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein–Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A hyperkinetic gait is most likely associated with which condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham chorea
Explanation:Hyperkinetic Gait is seen with certain basal ganglia disorders including Sydenham’s chorea, Huntington’s Disease and other forms of chorea, athetosis or dystonia. The patient will display irregular, jerky, involuntary movements in all extremities. Walking may accentuate their baseline movement disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Explanation:The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent eye blinking, facial grimacing, grunting, and sniffing. He has enough control to suppress them at times, but not always. They are happening at school, and his classmates are starting to notice.Which among the following would be the best initial step in the treatment of the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the above clinical scenario, of a child presenting with motor and vocal tics for more than a year is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Tourette syndrome. The symptoms often wax and wane, and although several different drugs are available, none are entirely useful, and side-effects are relatively common. With these considerations in mind, it is essential to try and avoid treatment initially as the tics can spontaneously improve with time. Informing the teacher and class about the nature of the condition and allowing the child ‘time out’ to tic might help to avoid the need for medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stopped spontaneously after 5 minutes. There was no preceding aura. His parents recall that he had a fever for the past three days that resolved after taking paracetamol. On examination, he was found to be febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, and throat examination revealed bilateral exudative tonsillitis. He has previously been treated for febrile seizures, once at the age of 16 months, subsequently at three years of age, and again at 5 years. Detailed family history revealed that his mother also suffered from repeated febrile seizures when she was young. His growth and development are up to age, and he is an above-average student at school. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Febrile seizure plus
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be febrile seizure plus syndrome.Rationale:All of the answers are possible epileptic conditions that this 8-year-old may have. However, the background history of febrile seizure together with a family history of febrile seizures, in a boy who is growing well, with no developmental delay, make febrile seizures plus the most appropriate differential diagnosis for this patient.Other options:- Epilepsy with myoclonic absences are often challenging to treat and may continue into adulthood. There is a male predominance (70%). At presentation, approximately half of cases have a learning disability. An absence seizure is common in this diagnosis and usually occurs daily.- Juvenile absence epilepsy may present with initial generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy followed by absences after that. They are also seen with a background of febrile seizure, and the peak age of presentation is usually at eight years old. Given the current history and lack of absences, this diagnosis is least likely.- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy usually presents with a myoclonic seizure, although the presentation maybe with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. It occurs more frequently. Background history of febrile fit may be present in 5-10% of the cases.- Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with aura, and that is not seen in this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele
Explanation:Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As the surgeon passes a needle into the area to administer a local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sharp pain.Which of the following pathways conveys pain sensations to the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract
Explanation:The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature sensations from the peripheries to the central nervous system.Note:The spinothalamic tract transmits impulses from receptors which measure crude touch, pain and temperature. The spinothalamic tract comprises the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts.The former typically transmits pain and temperature while the latter transmits crude touch and pressure. Neurones transmitting these signals will usually ascend by one or two vertebral levels in the Lissauer tract before decussating in the spinal cord itself. Neurones then pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder
Explanation:A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen “overnight and out of the blue,” and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The doctor suspects a space-occupying lesion.Where is this likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called Gerstmann’s Syndrome. It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space (contralateral neglect), which can impair many self-care skills such as dressing and washing. Right side damage can also cause difficulty in making things (constructional apraxia), denial of deficits (anosognosia) and drawing ability.Bi-lateral damage (large lesions to both sides) can cause Balint’s Syndrome, a visual attention and motor syndrome. This is characterized by the inability to voluntarily control the gaze (ocular apraxia), inability to integrate components of a visual scene (simultanagnosia), and the inability to accurately reach for an object with visual guidance (optic ataxia)Special deficits (primarily to memory and personality) can occur if there is damage to the area between the parietal and temporal lobes.Left parietal-temporal lesions can affect verbal memory and the ability to recall strings of digits. The right parietal-temporal lobe is concerned with non-verbal memory.Right parietal-temporal lesions can produce significant changes in personality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and pustular discharge from both ears. He has been feeding poorly for the last two days. Clinical examination reveals a full fontanelle but no other neurological signs. The doctor performs a lumbar puncture, took a blood sample, and started him on IV antibiotics. What would be the expected CSF picture for bacterial meningitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF glucose: blood glucose 0.4, protein 0.2g/l. Cells 400, 390 polymorphs, 10 lymphocytes
Explanation:The CSF picture in bacterial meningitis has the following characteristics: several polymorphs, cells, protein that is maximum 5g/l, a few lymphocytes and glucose that accounts for the two thirds of the blood level.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Damage to which of the following nerves may cause an absent jaw jerk reflex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigeminal
Explanation:The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of mastication and well as providing sensory input for most of the head. In testing the function of this nerve, the jaw jerk reflex may be brisk in cases of upper motor neuron lesions, but is however absent in nuclear or infra nuclear lesions involving the trigeminal nerve. Other nerve reflexes include the gag reflex of the glossopharyngeal nerve, and the pupillary light reflex of the optic nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal pain. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender but there is no guarding and bowel sounds are audible. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent and there is reduced power distally in his lower limbs. One of his older sisters has previously presented with a similar condition. The lab investigations are as follows: Hb 10 g/dlMean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 flPlatelets: 170Blood film basophilic stipplingUrinary δ-ALA (delta-aminolaevulinic acid): 100 mmol/24 hrs (normal range 8-53)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:Lead Poisoning Symptoms: Abdominal pain, bluish line on the gums (Burton line), wrist/foot drop, anaemia, nephropathy, encephalopathy, cognitive impairmentDiagnosis: Detectable in bloodBasophilic stippling of erythrocytes (disorder of heme synthesis) on smearTreatment: Succimer, Dimercaprol, EDTA
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)