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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic. The GP feels that they have depression, and reports that they smoke 50 per day. When you see them you notice that their left eyelid is drooping, and that the drooping becomes more pronounced on sustained upgaze. The pupils appear normal. On further questioning the patient reports intermittent double vision. Which of the following do you most suspect?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:The presence of fluctuating double vision and ptosis are characteristic symptoms of extraocular muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. The Simpson test, which involves observing fatigue during sustained lid and eye elevation, is also indicative of myasthenia. Unlike myotonic dystrophy, ptosis in myasthenia gravis worsens with sustained upgaze and is typically unilateral. Additionally, the absence of abnormal pupil size suggests that conditions such as Horner’s syndrome, diabetes-related III nerve palsy, and Pancoast tumor are not present.
Myasthenia Gravis and Psychiatric Disorders
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from the binding of circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. This condition is characterized by weakness and fatigue, which typically starts in the extraocular muscles, leading to ptosis and diplopia. However, in addition to these physical symptoms, psychiatric disorders are also common in patients with myasthenia gravis.
Depressive and anxiety disorders are the most frequently reported psychiatric conditions in individuals with myasthenia gravis. These disorders can significantly impact the quality of life of patients, and may even worsen the physical symptoms of the disease. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for psychiatric comorbidities in patients with myasthenia gravis and to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is excluded from the frontal assessment battery?
Your Answer: Ask the patient how two items are similar and different
Correct Answer: Asking the patient to draw a clock
Explanation:The Frontal Assessment Battery (FAB) is a quick and easy bedside test used to detect the dysexecutive syndrome. It consists of six subsets, including conceptualization, mental flexibility, motor programming, conflicting instructions, go-no go (inhibitory control), and prehension behavior. The test assesses a patient’s ability to perform tasks such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and motor skills. The FAB can be completed in just a few minutes and is a useful tool for clinicians in evaluating patients with suspected executive dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Argyll Robertson pupils?
Your Answer: They show a reduced or absent response to accommodation
Correct Answer: They are a feature of late-stage syphilis
Explanation:Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained
The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?
Your Answer: Visual-spatial capacity
Correct Answer: Sentence completion
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes a patient with schizophrenia who reports feeling like their thoughts are compressed and racing?
Your Answer: Flight of ideas
Correct Answer: Crowding
Explanation:Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?
Your Answer: It is a useful tool for detecting dementia
Explanation:The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia
The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.
The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the options below indicates a strong urge of need to perform a certain behavior repeatedly?
Your Answer: A preoccupation with order and symmetry that is experienced as pleasant
Correct Answer: Repeating certain phrases in your mind that you feel driven to perform
Explanation:The act of repeating phrases that one feels compelled to perform is considered a compulsion. Compulsions are actions, either physical or mental, that one feels driven to perform. Obsessions, on the other hand, are recurrent and intrusive thoughts, urges, of images. The urge to hoard, for example, is an obsession rather than a compulsion. Compulsions are not inherently pleasurable and are performed to reduce anxiety. It is important to note that in order to qualify as a compulsion under DSM-5, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Therefore, the behavior that is most suggestive of a compulsion is one that meets these criteria.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the options below indicates a strong fixation of preoccupation with something?
Your Answer: Repetitive and silent counting to counter anxiety caused by urges to throw hot drinks at people
Correct Answer: Experiencing repetitive and unpleasant urges to stab animals
Explanation:The question asks for the most suggestive option, and it should be noted that for something to be considered an obsession according to DSM-5 criteria, it must be time-consuming of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Obsessions can manifest as intrusive and unpleasant urges, thoughts, of images.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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How can the immaturity of a defense mechanism be identified?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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The patient's use of words is unclear and may indicate disorganized thinking of difficulty expressing themselves. Which of the following best describes this?
Your Answer: Neologism
Explanation:Neologism pertains to the creation of novel terms, while paraphasia involves the replacement of one word with another, such as saying orange instead of banana. Asyndesis, on the other hand, refers to a breakdown in the distinction between different concepts.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What tools of methods are utilized to aid in identifying personality disorders?
Your Answer: SAS
Correct Answer: IPDE
Explanation:The tools mentioned are used for screening and diagnosing personality disorders. The SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. The FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM and includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview. The PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions based on DSM-IV criteria. The IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes. The IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Correct
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What kind of sensory experience is the man having when he hears a drum sound while trying to fall asleep?
Your Answer: Hypnagogic
Explanation:As individuals drift off to sleep, they may encounter hypnagogic hallucinations, which are characterized by sensory phenomena. These can vary from faint sensations to intense hallucinations. It is important to note that these occurrences are a natural part of the sleep cycle.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Who is credited with creating the term schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Jaspers
Correct Answer: Bleuler
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following best represents a strong indication of being dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer: Low AST
Correct Answer: Raised MCV
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile
Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.
It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is not associated with catatonia?
Your Answer: Forced grasping
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and unpredictable conduct. He is presently residing in a shelter for the homeless and has been observed to have inadequate self-maintenance and social abilities. Based on this information, which subtype of schizophrenia according to ICD-10 is indicated?
Your Answer: Hebephrenic
Explanation:Hebephrenic schizophrenia is a type of schizophrenia that is classified in the ICD-10 as having a greater emphasis on thought disorder than hallucinations, with erratic of disorganized behavior being prominent. The DSM-IV equivalent is disorganized schizophrenia. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by abnormalities in psychomotor function. Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. Simple schizophrenia is not a suitable option because it is a subtype of schizophrenia that is characterized by a decline in functioning as the only clear symptom. Undifferentiated schizophrenia refers to a presentation of schizophrenia that does not fit into a specific subtype.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe a medication that has its own distinct effects but does not provide any benefits for the intended condition?
Your Answer: A nocebo
Correct Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Incorrect
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For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to evaluate?
Your Answer: Development
Correct Answer: Attitude
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A child jumps from one subject to another without any clear link between them. What is the most appropriate term to describe this occurrence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Derailment
Explanation:Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) as an assessment tool for depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Includes questions about thoughts of self-harm
Explanation:Depression screening can be done using two questions that ask about feeling down, depressed, of hopeless and having little interest of pleasure in doing things. A ‘yes’ answer to either question prompts a more in-depth assessment using tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale of the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9). The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, while the PHQ-9 asks about 9 problems over the last 2 weeks. NICE grades depression into ‘less severe’ and ‘more severe’ based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and >16, respectively. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold and mild to moderate and severe. It is important to assess depression severity to determine appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An illusion
Explanation:An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What defense mechanism is being demonstrated when an athlete initially dislikes a hockey teammate and eventually begins to believe that the teammate hates them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:This scenario illustrates the concept of projection, where the athlete is projecting their own feelings of hatred onto their team mate. However, it does not involve projective identification as there is no indication of how the team mate is internalizing of reacting to the projection.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What screening tool does NICE recommend for identifying alcohol misuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is accurate about the diagnosis and categorization of personality disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder is recognised as a separate and distinct personality disorder within the DSM-5
Explanation:The DSM-5 includes a distinct classification for narcissistic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the CAGE questionnaire?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a 4-item scale
Explanation:Although CAGE is commonly used for screening, it should not be used as a diagnostic tool. Additionally, it is not recommended to use CAGE as an outcome measure. AUDIT has been found to be more effective than CAGE and is the preferred screening tool according to the NICE Guidelines (CG115).
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carefulness
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most strongly indicated by a flat affect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect
Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the feeling of being unfamiliar with a person of situation that is actually known?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jamais vu
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following refers to a continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Athetosis
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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