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Question 1
Correct
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A father is concerned that his daughter keeps repeating the same phrase, even when he asks her a different question she still responds with the same phrase. He wants to know what this is called so he can research it online. What term describes her behavior?
Your Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:Verbigeration is the act of repeating words of phrases without any significant meaning, and it does not necessarily require an external stimulus to trigger it. This is different from perseveration, which is an inappropriate and persistent response to a stimulus.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase IV
Explanation:Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives
Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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Which cognitive function is primarily assessed by the intersecting pentagons task in the MMSE?
Your Answer: Constructional praxis
Explanation:Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient complains that his deceased grandfather is putting thoughts into his head. This type of thought disorder is referred to as:
Your Answer: Passivity
Explanation:Patients may feel that they have lost control over their thoughts, which can manifest as passivity of thought. This refers to the belief that an external agency is controlling one’s thoughts. Passivity can take different forms, such as thought withdrawal, thought insertion, and thought broadcasting.
Ego (Boundary) Disturbances
Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.
Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.
Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.
Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.
Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Correct
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What scales are used to assess the intensity of manic symptoms?
Your Answer: YMRS
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Correct
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In which context is the anglepoise lamp sign observed?
Your Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Correct
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What is a true statement about dissociative seizures?
Your Answer: Post event prolactin levels are usually normal
Explanation:The absence of a serum prolactin increase is a characteristic of simple partial seizures, but this test is not reliable for prolonged status epilepticus as prolactin levels may remain normal. To obtain accurate results, blood samples should be taken within 20-30 minutes after the seizure and compared to a baseline sample. However, this test is becoming less common in specialized centers due to the risk of false positive results in cases of syncope and dissociative seizures, as reported by Mellers in 2005.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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Which assessment tools can individuals rate themselves?
Your Answer: EPDS (Edinburgh postnatal major depression scale)
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the meaning of the term autochthonous delusion?
Your Answer: A primary delusion
Explanation:Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the purpose of using confrontation during a clinical examination?
Your Answer: Visual field loss
Explanation:Confrontation Test
The confrontation test is a method used to assess a patient’s visual fields. This test involves comparing the patient’s visual field with that of the examiner. To perform the test, both the patient and the examiner cover one eye, and the examiner then brings their fingers into view from a peripheral position. By comparing the patient’s response to the examiner’s, the examiner can determine any visual field defects that may be present. The confrontation test is a simple and effective way to assess a patient’s visual fields and can be performed quickly and easily in a clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most probable reason for a patient with delirium to seem unresponsive to attempts at communication?
Your Answer: Hypoacusis
Explanation:Sensory Distortions of Sound
Hyperacusis is a condition where an individual experiences an increased sensitivity to noise. This condition is commonly observed in people with anxiety and depressive disorders, as well as during a hangover of migraine. On the other hand, hypoacusis is a condition where an individual experiences a reduced sensitivity to sound. This condition is commonly observed in people with delirium and depression, where it is often accompanied by hyperacusis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which manual for diagnosing mental disorders popularized the use of operational criteria in psychiatric diagnosis?
Your Answer: ICD-10
Correct Answer: DSM III
Explanation:The implementation of operational criteria in diagnosis was a significant feature of DSM III, which was a response to the criticism of the previous versions of the DSM that relied heavily on psychodynamic concepts. This shift in approach is often praised for revitalizing the field of psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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Which frontal lobe function is evaluated by the Luria test?
Your Answer: Set shifting
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Correct
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Which condition related to catatonia involves the patient being placed in uncomfortable positions that are sustained for a significant amount of time?
Your Answer: Waxy flexibility
Explanation:Waxy flexibility involves the examiner imposing postures on the patient, while posturing involves spontaneous postures. On the other hand, mitgehen is a type of automatic obedience where the examiner can easily move the patient’s body with a gentle touch, but unlike waxy flexibility, the body part quickly returns to its original position.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Correct
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An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract 3 again from the product of that calculation. What is being assessed?
Your Answer: Concentration
Explanation:The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Correct
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What does axis 3 of ICD-10 refer to?
Your Answer: Current psychosocial problems
Explanation:The multi-axial version of ICD-10 expands the evaluation of the patient’s condition by utilizing three axes:
Axis 1 specifies the mental disorder, encompassing personality disorder and mental handicap
Axis 2 specifies the level of impairment, and
Axis 3 specifies existing psychosocial difficulties. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos?
Your Answer: Piblokto
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of closed questions?
Your Answer: They make it easier to control the interview
Explanation:While open questions offer several benefits, they can pose challenges in terms of interview control and record-keeping.
Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the name of the alcohol screening tool with 10 questions that was developed by WHO?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Correct
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A child complains that people's heads seem to appear larger than they should in relation to their bodies.
Which of the following best describes their experience?Your Answer: Dysmegalopsia
Explanation:Dysmegalopsia: Difficulty in Perceiving Object Size
Dysmegalopsia is a condition characterized by a reduced ability to accurately perceive the size of objects. This can manifest as either micropsia, where objects appear smaller than they actually are, of macropsia, where objects appear larger than they actually are. Dysmegalopsia can occur as a standalone symptom of as part of a group of symptoms known as the Alice in Wonderland Syndrome. In this syndrome, individuals may experience distortions in their perception of size, shape, and distance, as well as other sensory disturbances. Dysmegalopsia can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, migraines, and the use of certain medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Correct
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An artificially high calcium level can result from abnormalities in which of the following?
Your Answer: Albumin
Explanation:Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes
Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.
It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Correct
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On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an IQ test?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following does not provide evidence for a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer: Hyporeflexia
Explanation:Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism can lead to the development of pretibial myxoedema, while hyporeflexia is typically only observed in cases of hypothyroidism.
Thyroid Examination Findings
Hypothyroidism:
– Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
– Intolerance to cold
– Lethargy
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances
– Decreased perspirationExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Bradycardia
– Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Myxoedema
– HyporeflexiaHyperthyroidism:
– Weight loss (with increased appetite)
– Intolerance to heat
– Palpitations
– Menstrual disturbancesExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Tachycardia
– Warm, moist, and smooth skin
– Tremor
– Brisk reflexes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Correct
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What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler?
Your Answer: He introduced the concept of accessory symptoms in schizophrenia
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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How can the alcohol screening tool that only contains one question be described?
Your Answer: SASQ
Explanation:The SASQ is a screening questionnaire that consists of a single question asking about the last time an individual had more than a certain number of alcoholic drinks in one day (8 for men and 6 for women). If the response indicates that this occurred within the past 3 months, it suggests that the individual may be engaging in harmful of hazardous drinking.
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Correct
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A teenage girl from a family with strong religious beliefs is unable to express her homosexual feelings. She starts writing poetry which indirectly portrays same-sex love. She finds solace in her writing and gains recognition for her talent.
What defense mechanism is likely at play in the girl's connection with her poetry?Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia has ritualistic movements, and posture which is not goal directed. He is often observed rocking in the corner of the room. Which of the following does he exhibit?:
Your Answer:
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Correct
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What is one of the five major personality traits?
Your Answer: Neuroticism
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale?
Your Answer: Thoughts to harm the baby
Explanation:Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a 10-item self-report questionnaire designed to screen for postnatal depression in primary care settings. It should only be used to assess a women’s mood over the past seven days and cannot be used to diagnose depression. The EPDS excludes some symptoms common in the perinatal period, such as tiredness and irritability, as they do not differentiate between depressed and non-depressed postnatal women. Women are asked to select one of four responses that most closely represents how they have felt over the past seven days. Scores for the 10 items are added together, with a score of 0-9 indicating a low likelihood of depression, 10-12 indicating a moderate likelihood, and 13 of more indicating a high likelihood. The statements include feelings of happiness, sadness, anxiety, and thoughts of self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Correct
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What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been observed over time?
Your Answer: Flynn effect
Explanation:The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with lower levels of skill of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.
The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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