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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the diagnosis of PTSD according to the ICD-11 criteria?
Your Answer: Re-experiencing the traumatic event is not required for a diagnosis if avoidance of reminders and hypervigilance is present to a marked degree
Correct Answer: The traumatic event must be of a degree that would considered horrific in nature
Explanation:The ICD-11 requires that the traumatic event be of an extremely threatening of horrific nature, which can be experienced directly of indirectly. There is no specific timeframe for when symptoms must occur after the event. To diagnose PTSD, three core elements must be present: re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Flashbacks can range from mild to severe, with mild flashbacks involving a brief sense of the event occurring again and severe flashbacks resulting in a complete loss of awareness of present surroundings.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the proposed idea that a researcher is attempting to validate?
Your Answer: Elective hypothesis
Correct Answer: Alternative hypothesis
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 3
Correct
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What parenting style emphasizes obedience and status through the implementation of strict rules?
Your Answer: Authoritarian
Explanation:Parenting Styles
In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.
Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.
Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.
Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.
Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is a suitable alternative for a patient who has lithium-induced diabetes insipidus and cannot be switched to a different medication?
Your Answer: Captopril
Correct Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:It is not advisable to limit fluid intake in cases of lithium-induced DI as it can result in severe hypernatremia.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which medication is impacted by moisture and therefore cannot be included in a medication compliance aid?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Drug Stability
The stability of drugs can vary greatly, with some medications being unable to be included in compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors. Certain drugs have a tendency to absorb moisture from the air, rendering them ineffective, with light known to accelerate this process. Examples of drugs that are unsuitable for compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors include Sodium valproate, Zopiclone, Venlafaxine, Topiramate, Methylphenidate, Mirtazapine, Olanzapine, Amisulpride, and Aripiprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What was the first drug to be acknowledged for its potential therapeutic benefits in treating psychiatric disorders?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:John Cade’s research in 1949 led to the rediscovery of lithium’s therapeutic potential in treating mania, which had been previously recognized. Lithium was then used to treat ‘manic-depression’ in clinical practice from the early 1950s, and its use in preventing mood disorders was introduced in the 1970s. Amitriptyline was developed in 1961, while Chlorpromazine was discovered in the early 1950s, and Imipramine was discovered in the late 1950s. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) was identified as a stimulant in 1954 and licensed in 1955.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which area is believed to have the primary role in psychosis due to an overabundance of dopaminergic activity?
Your Answer: Prefrontal cortex
Correct Answer: Striatum
Explanation:The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old drug addict decides to quit using drugs. On the fifth day of sobriety, he begins to experience visual and auditory hallucinations of tiny beings in his bedroom, sometimes even feeling them crawling on him. What is the term for this perceptual disturbance?
Your Answer: Lilliputian hallucination
Explanation:Delirium tremens, which can occur after alcohol withdrawal, may cause tactile and auditory hallucinations. Lilliputian hallucinations, which involve seeing small objects of animals, can also occur during alcohol withdrawal and in various other conditions such as delirium, dementia, and schizophrenia. Affect illusions occur when perception of everyday objects is altered based on a person’s prevailing mood, but this experience is temporary and disappears with increased attention. Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition where individuals experience complex visual hallucinations due to impaired vision without any underlying psychological issues. Pseudohallucinations are different from normal sense perceptions as they are figurative and subjective, not concrete of real. Pareidolic illusions involve mixing sensory perceptions with imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about depersonalization?
Your Answer: It is associated with a loss of insight
Correct Answer: It is associated with emotional numbness
Explanation:Ego (Boundary) Disturbances
Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.
Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.
Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.
Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.
Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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From which amino acids is serotonin produced?
Your Answer: Tryptophan
Explanation:The synthesis of serotonin involves the conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxy-L-tryptophan (5-HTP) by tryptophan hydroxylase (TPH), followed by the conversion of 5-HTP to serotonin by pyridoxal phosphate and aromatic amino acid decarboxylase. Tryptophan, which is found in most protein-based foods, is the precursor for serotonin synthesis. While exogenous serotonin cannot cross the blood-brain barrier, tryptophan and 5-HTP can be taken as dietary supplements to increase serotonin levels.
Dopamine, on the other hand, is synthesized from phenylalanine and tyrosine. The major pathway involves the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine, then to L-Dopa, and finally to dopamine. Noradrenaline and adrenaline are derived from further metabolic modification of dopamine. Serine and alanine are other amino acids that are not directly involved in catecholamine synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her from a distance in the darkness. As she approaches, she realizes it's just a tree branch swaying in the wind. What is this occurrence called?
Your Answer: Affect illusion
Explanation:Affect illusions occur when a person’s mood affects their perception of everyday objects, leading to misinterpretation. These illusions are temporary and can be dispelled with increased attention. Completion illusions occur when the brain fills in incomplete perceptions with extrapolation from previous experiences to create meaning. An example is reading misprints in newspapers as if they were written correctly. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one modality produces a hallucination in another modality. Pareidolic illusions involve a mixture of sensory perceptions and imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the mutual agreement between a doctor and their patient regarding treatment?
Your Answer: Adherence
Correct Answer: Concordance
Explanation:While adherence, compliance, and capacitance all refer to how well a patient follows a doctor’s instructions, they do not have the same meaning as concordance, which specifically refers to the agreement between patient and doctor on a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 13
Correct
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In child psychology, what is the term used to describe the symptom where a child's speech is reduced to meaningless repetition of sounds, words, of phrases?
Your Answer: Verbigeration
Explanation:When a patient exhibits verbigeration, it can be a sign of loosening of association, which can also be seen in severe expressive aphasia and sometimes in schizophrenia. Knight’s move thinking is another example of loosening of associations, where the patient transitions from one topic to another without any logical connection. Neologisms are words of phrases created by the patient to describe their experiences, often related to their illness. Overinclusion is when the patient expands the boundaries of concepts, grouping things together that are not normally associated. Talking past the point, of vorbeireden, is when the patient seems to be approaching the end of a topic but never actually reaches it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the frequency of the A allele in a population of 100 diploid individuals, where 30 individuals are heterozygous for allele A and 5 individuals are homozygous for allele A?
Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 0.2
Explanation:Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency
Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male is experiencing difficulty walking of standing normally. He presents to the Emergency department and is observed swaying from side to side, almost falling before recovering. What is the specific name for this condition?
Your Answer: Malingering
Correct Answer: Blocq's disease
Explanation:Blocq’s disease, also known as astasia-abasia, is a conversion symptom characterized by an abnormal gait that is not indicative of any organic lesion. Hypochondriasis is excessive worry about having a serious illness despite the absence of a medical condition. Malingering involves fabricating symptoms for secondary gain, while somatization is a chronic condition with multiple physical complaints for which no physical cause can be found and is associated with frequent medical contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man wears a baseball cap and inserts cotton balls in his ears. He does this to shield himself from his coworkers' negative comments. What symptom is he safeguarding against?
Your Answer: Somatic passivity
Correct Answer: Thought insertion
Explanation:Thought insertion is a symptom commonly experienced by individuals with schizophrenia, where they believe that their thoughts are not their own and have been placed in their head from an external source. This is one of the many first rank symptoms of schizophrenia, which also include delusional percept, audible thoughts, third person auditory hallucination, running commentary, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, passivity of affect, passivity of impulses, passivity of volition, and somatic passivity. Third person auditory hallucinations involve hearing multiple voices discussing the patient as a third person. Thought broadcast is a passivity experience where the patient believes their thoughts are being widely broadcasted after being taken away from their head. Thought withdrawal is the belief that one’s thoughts are being taken away from their head against their will. Somatic passivity is a delusional belief that one’s body is being controlled from outside, which is different from haptic hallucination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old individual with schizophrenia experiences the belief that their thoughts are being controlled externally through a process of telephony. What type of speech disorder is probable in this case?
Your Answer: Logoclonia
Correct Answer: Neologism
Explanation:Neologism is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person creates new words of uses existing words in a way that only makes sense to them. Alogia is a difficulty in speaking, which can be caused by a lack of thoughts of negative thought disorder. Clang associations occur when words are linked based on their sound rather than their meaning. Logoclonia is a condition where a person gets stuck on a particular word, often repeating syllables of parts of words. Stuttering is a speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetitions, prolongations, and pauses in speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which condition is marked by an increased appetite and being overweight?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics
Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Correct
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Which scales require evaluation by a healthcare professional?
Your Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Correct
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From which region is the largest amount of norepinephrine released?
Your Answer: Locus coeruleus
Explanation:Norepinephrine: Synthesis, Release, and Breakdown
Norepinephrine is synthesized from tyrosine through a series of enzymatic reactions. The first step involves the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase. Dopamine is further converted to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase. Finally, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.
The primary site of norepinephrine release is the locus coeruleus, also known as the blue spot, which is located in the pons. Once released, norepinephrine is broken down by two enzymes: catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO). These enzymes play a crucial role in regulating the levels of norepinephrine in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Correct
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A man in his 50s, with a history of severe depression, asks for your opinion on the safety of continuing his antidepressant medication while undergoing surgery. He is currently taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily.
What is one appropriate piece of advice you can give him?Your Answer: Treatment of maternal illness is the highest priority
Explanation:Although there is a potential risk of infants being exposed to antidepressants through breast milk, leaving mental illness untreated can pose greater risks. The safety of psychotropic medication during breastfeeding is not well-established. Nonetheless, sertraline is considered one of the safest antidepressants for breastfeeding mothers as it is excreted in low levels. Therefore, if treatment is necessary, sertraline is a suitable option for breastfeeding mothers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which structure is most commonly observed to have pallor in individuals with Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer: Substantia nigra
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.
Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.
In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.
Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 23
Correct
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The child followed every instruction without considering the outcome. The doctor requested the child to stick out their tongue and proceeded to prick it with a pin. Despite the pain, the child complied each time the doctor asked and allowed their tongue to be pricked. What symptom is the child displaying?
Your Answer: Automatic obedience
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male reports feeling distressed after hearing his deceased wife's voice in his head, asking him to come join her. He clarifies that he heard it internally and not as an external sound. What type of perceptual abnormality is reflected in his experience?
Your Answer: Otoscopic hallucinations
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucinations
Explanation:– Pseudohallucinations are figurative and not real
– They are located in the inner subjective space
– Auditory hallucinations are concrete, tangible, and real
– They are located in the outside objective space
– Autoscopy is the experience of seeing oneself
– Reflex hallucination is where a stimulus in one modality produces hallucination in another modality
– Hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking up from sleep. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old individual has experienced a stroke resulting in aphasia, hemiplegia, and sensory impairment. What is the most probable area of the brain that has been affected?
Your Answer: Dominant middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is the most frequent location for cerebral infarction, resulting in contralateral paralysis and sensory loss. If the dominant hemisphere is affected, language impairment such as Broca’s of Wernicke’s aphasia may occur. Bilateral anterior cerebellar artery blockage is uncommon but can lead to akinetic mutism, which is characterized by a loss of speech and movement. Non-dominant middle cerebral artery blockage can cause contralateral neglect, as well as motor and sensory dysfunction, but language is typically unaffected. The occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery can result in lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome, which is characterized by crossed contralateral and trunk sensory deficits and ipsilateral sensory deficits affecting the face and cranial nerves. Emboli in the ophthalmic artery can cause temporary vision loss, also known as amaurosis fugax, which is more commonly caused by emboli originating in the carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly and maintain the paragraph spacing.
Your Answer: A hallucination without the quality of a normal percept
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations are often distinguished from true hallucinations by their lack of a genuine perceptual quality, although this distinction can be challenging to apply in practice. True hallucinations can be induced by illicit drug use. extracampine hallucinations, which are typically visual and occur outside of the normal sensory field, are considered true hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are not exclusive to schizophrenia and can manifest in various sensory modalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 27
Correct
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What type of MRI scan is available?
Your Answer: DTI
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?
Your Answer: Avoidance conditioning
Correct Answer: Escape conditioning
Explanation:Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding psychosis that develops later in life?
Your Answer: Is commonly associated with lower social class
Correct Answer: Can be associated with blindness
Explanation:Late onset psychosis has a higher prevalence in females and is often associated with sensory impairment, particularly hearing loss. Auditory hallucinations are the most common type of hallucination experienced in late onset psychosis, while visual, somatic, and olfactory hallucinations are less common. Compared to individuals without psychosis, those with late onset psychosis tend to have larger cerebral ventricles and more cognitive impairment. There is no reported association with social class. Patients with late onset psychosis are more likely to be unmarried and have lower fecundity. While there is an increased risk of schizophrenia in first-degree relatives, this risk is approximately half of that found in first-degree relatives of young individuals with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Aetiology
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the options below produces a metabolite that remains active in the body?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Antidepressants with Active Metabolites
Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethyl-clomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.
These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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