-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?
Your Answer: Heparin therapy
Explanation:Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following makes up the thick filaments?
Your Answer: Myosin
Explanation:The thick filaments are made up of myosin and the thin filaments are made up of actin. The thick filaments are twice the size of the thin filaments and are aligned to form the A band. The thin filaments extending out from the A band form the less dense I bands.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What is the function of basic electrical rhythm
Your Answer: To coordinate peristalsis and other motor activity
Explanation:The basal or basic electrical rhythm (BER) or electrical control activity (ECA) determines the frequency of the contractions in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thus acting to coordinate peristalsis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?
Your Answer: Indicator dilution method
Explanation:There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always occur at what portion of the muscle fiber?
Your Answer: Z lines
Explanation:The muscle fibers of the heart branch and interdigitate, but one complete unit is surrounded by a cell membrane. The place where one muscle fiber abuts the other, the cell membrane of both the fibers run parallel to each other through a series of extensive folds. These areas always occur on the Z lines and are known as intercalated discs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Where does the pituitary gland lie?
Your Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain
Explanation:The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Where is retinol mainly stored?
Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules occur?
Your Answer: G1
Explanation:DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?
Your Answer: An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure
Explanation:An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure occurs in inspiration e.g. Kussmaul sign is an inspiratory distention of the jugular veins caused by the inability of the right atrium, encased in its rigid pericardium during constrictive pericarditis, to accommodate the increase in venous return that occurs with inspiration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?
Your Answer: Marfan's syndrome
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Aortic insufficiency, is often due to the aortic root dilation, which is idiopathic in over 80% of cases, but otherwise may result from aging, syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Bechet’s disease, reactive arthritis and systemic hypertension. Additionally, aortic insufficiency has been linked to the use of some medications and other potential causes that affect the valve directly including Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. In acute cases of aortic insufficiency, the main causes are infective endocarditis, aortic dissection or trauma. Dilated cardiomyopathy is associated with the development of mitral regurgitation, not aortic regurgitation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
The branche(s) of the left coronary artery are
Your Answer: A and b
Explanation:Posterior descending artery comes from Right coronary artery. The anterior interventricular artery is otherwise known as the anterior descending branch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce agents that attract neutrophils to an infected area is called:
Your Answer: Chemotaxis
Explanation:During an inflammatory process many cytokines are produced that act as chemokines to attract neutrophils to the site of inflammation. These include bacterial products, IL-8, C5a and LTB4.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Where is the myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) located in the GIT?
Your Answer: Between the outer longitudinal and middle circular muscle layers.
Explanation:A part of the enteric nervous system, the myenteric plexus exists between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa in the gastrointestinal tract. It is found in the muscles of the oesophagus, stomach, and intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
What is the main function of vitamin E?
Your Answer: It is an antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E has many biological functions, the antioxidant function being the best known. Other functions include enzymatic activities, gene expression, and neurological function(s).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
Antibiotic resistance may happen by:
Your Answer: By enzymes which inactivate the drug
Explanation:The three main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance are, enzymatic degradation of antibacterial drugs, alteration of bacterial proteins that are antimicrobial targets, and changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?
Your Answer: ß-endorphin
Explanation:ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function?
Your Answer: Tight junctions
Explanation:Tight junctions surround the apical margins of the epithelial cells such as in the intestinal mucosa and the choroid plexus. They are also important to the endothelial barrier function. They are made up of ridges that adhere to each other strongly at the cell junction, obliterating the space completely between the cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Which of the following is untrue about mitochondrial chromosome disorders?
Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.
Explanation:All are true except for B. Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory cortex. Which one of the following is not one of the five regions?
Your Answer: Posterior olfactory nucleus
Explanation:The olfactory system contains peripheral and central divisions which are connected by transduction structures. Peripheral division consists mainly of the nostrils, ethmoid bone, nasal cavity, and the olfactory epithelium. Olfactory neurons are receptor cells in the epithelium that detect odour molecules dissolved in the mucus and transmit information about the odour to the brain in a process called sensory transduction. Olfactory nerves and fibers transmit information about odours from the peripheral olfactory system to the central olfactory system of the brain. The main olfactory bulb transmits pulses to both mitral and tufted cells, which help determine odour concentration. These cells also note differences between highly similar odours and use that data to aid in later recognition. The cells are different with the mitral having low firing-rates and being easily inhibited by neighbouring cells, while tufted have high rates of firing and are more difficult to inhibit. The uncus houses the olfactory cortex which includes the piriform cortex, amygdala, olfactory tubercle, and para-hippocampal gyrus. Entorhinal cortex is an area of middle temporal lobe that has connection with the para-hippocampal gyrus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?
Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:
Your Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats
Explanation:Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?
Your Answer: Penicillin
Explanation:Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?
Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:
Your Answer: Sensory input from the semi-circular canal (CN VIII)
Explanation:Located in the brain stem is a series of purely sensory nuclei known as tractus solitaries. Inputs of the nucleus tractus solitaries include:Taste information from the facial nerve (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal nerve (posterior 1/3) and vagus nerve (small area on the epiglottis).Sensory information from the ear (auricular branch of the vagus nerve).Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) in the carotid body via glossopharyngeal nerve, aortic bodies, and the sinoatrial node, via the vagus nerve.Chemically and mechanically sensitive neurons of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) with endings located in the heart, lungs, airways, gastrointestinal system, pharynx, and liver via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions:
Your Answer: Trefoil peptides and mucus- bicarbonate layer.
Explanation:Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, a protein digesting enzyme. Bombesin is a peptide which stimulates gastrin secreting cells in the stomach increasing production of gastric acid. Ecl or enterochromaffin cells are neuroendocrine cells that aid in the production of gastric acid via the release of histamine. Oxyntic cells are also known as parietal cells and are the main cells secreting gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl). Gastric acid and pepsin are harmful agents for the gastric mucosa and can result in autodigestion. It is therefore protected by several agents including bicarbonate which neutralizes the acidity of gastric acid while Trefoil peptides are a component of gastric mucosa that form a gel like layer in the gastric epithelium protecting it from harmful agents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:
Your Answer: It results from an Ca2+ influx
Correct Answer: It allows early reactivation of the myocytes
Explanation:The presence of the plateau in the action potential causes ventricular contraction to last as much as 15 times longer in cardiac muscle as in skeletal muscle. The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (refractory) phase prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
Which receptor type is associated with bronchial muscle relaxation?
Your Answer: β2
Explanation:β2-adrenoceptors are widely distributed in the respiratory tract. When they are activated, an intracellular response induces the activation of cyclic AMP; this, in turn, produces airway relaxation through phosphorylation of muscle regulatory proteins and modification of cellular Ca2+concentrations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight
Your Answer: It is sexually transmitted.
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
Regarding the length of systole and diastole which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The duration of systole is more fixed than diastole
Explanation:The duration of systole is more fixed than the duration of diastole. When the heart rate increases the timing of systole remains more or less the same however, diastole decreases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?
Your Answer: Albumin
Correct Answer: Thyroxine-binding globulin
Explanation:Thyroxine-binding globulin, also known as TBG, is one of the three transport proteins responsible for carrying T4 and T3 through the circulatory system. It carries most of the T4 present in plasma, which it binds to strongly, shielding the hydrophobic hormones from the aqueous surroundings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
Which of the following cells will degranulate and release histamine when binding to IgE?
Your Answer: Basophils
Explanation:Basophils have protein receptors on their cell surface that bind IgE, an immunoglobulin involved in microparasite defence and allergy. When activated, basophils degranulate to release histamine, proteoglycans (e.g. heparin and chondroitin), and proteolytic enzymes (e.g. elastase and lysophospholipase).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
Telomeres are best described as:
Your Answer: The protein end portion of DNA protecting the DNA from damage
Correct Answer: A repetitive DNA sequence at the end of a DNA molecule.
Explanation:Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone:
Your Answer: Receives nutrients from bone ECF
Correct Answer: All of the options are correct
Explanation:Trabecular, spongy or cancellous bone. It is located inside the cortical bone and makes up around 20% of all bone in the body. It is made of spicules or plates with a high surface to volume ratio, where many cells sit on the surface of the end plates. It receives its nutrients from the extracellular fluid (ECF), exchanging about 10 mmol of calcium every 24 hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol
Your Answer: Both antibiotics is bactericidal
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase
Explanation:Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly during:
Your Answer: Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
Correct Answer: Diastole
Explanation:The sub endocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure from contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the sub endocardium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:
Your Answer: At the apical surface of the villi
Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts
Explanation:Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
What is the function of Activated protein C?
Your Answer: Activates factor VIII
Correct Answer: Inactivates factor Va
Explanation:Protein C, also known as autoprothrombin IIA and blood coagulation factor XIV, is a zymogen, the activated form of which plays an important role in regulating anticoagulation, inflammation, cell death, and maintaining the permeability of blood vessel walls in humans and other animals. Activated protein C (APC) performs these operations primarily by proteolytically inactivating proteins Factor Va and Factor VIIIa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to
Your Answer: Stop producing pancreatic juice
Correct Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
Explanation:Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Your Answer: Occurs during ventricular rapid filling phase
Correct Answer: Coincide with atrial contraction
Explanation:A third heart sound also called a ventricular gallop occurs at the beginning of diastole after S2 and is lower in pitch than S1 or S2 as it is not of valvular origin. The third heart sound is benign in youth, some trained athletes, and sometimes in pregnancy but if it re-emerges later in life it may signal cardiac problems, such as a failing left ventricle as in dilated congestive heart failure (CHF). S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. It may also be a result of tensing of the chordae tendineae during rapid filling and expansion of the ventricle. In other words, an S3 heart sound indicates increased volume of blood within the ventricle. An S3 heart sound is best heard with the bell-side of the stethoscope (used for lower frequency sounds). A left-sided S3 is best heard in the left lateral decubitus position and at the apex of the heart, which is normally located in the 5th left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A right-sided S3 is best heard at the lower-left sternal border. The way to distinguish between a left and right-sided S3 is to observe whether it increases in intensity with inhalation or exhalation. A right-sided S3 will increase on inhalation, while a left-sided S3 will increase on exhalation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?
Your Answer: Right coronary
Explanation:The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?
Your Answer: Mit
Correct Answer: T4
Explanation:T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:The liver is responsible for the mainstay of protein metabolism, synthesis as well as degradation. It is also responsible for a large part of amino acid synthesis. The liver plays a role in the production of clotting factors as well as red blood cell production. Some of the proteins synthesized by the liver include coagulation factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII, as well as protein C, protein S and antithrombin. The liver is a major site of production for thrombopoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the production of platelets by the bone marrow. The liver also produces albumin, the most abundant protein in blood serum and angiotensinogen. Cholecystokinin, previously called pancreozymin, is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
The coronary sinus drains into the:
Your Answer: Right ventricle
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The coronary sinus drains into the right atrium. Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
The choroid plexus:
Your Answer: Its epithelial cells are fenestrated
Correct Answer: All are true
Explanation:The choroid plexus is a vascular structure found in all cerebral ventricles. The functional unit of the choroid plexus, composed of a capillary, enveloped by a layer of differentiated ependymal epithelium. Unlike the capillaries that form the blood-brain barrier, choroid plexus capillaries are fenestrated and have no tight junctions. The endothelium, therefore, does not form a barrier to the movement of small molecules. Instead, the blood-CSF barrier at the choroid plexus is formed by the epithelial cells and the tight junctions that link them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct:
Your Answer: Beta 2 receptors mediate bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer: Alpha 1 receptors increase bronchial constriction
Explanation:Stimulation of β2 receptors results in smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. α1 receptors cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles although minor to the β2 effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:
Your Answer: Activation of K+ channels
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during.
Your Answer: Initial rapid repolarization
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Absolute refractory period (ARP): the cell is completely unexcitable to a new stimulus and occurs from phase 0 – 2 i.e. depolarisation, early repolarisation and plateau phase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 55
Correct
-
Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole
Explanation:The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by binding of which molecule to the exposed site on the myosin.
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: ATP
Explanation:A crossbridge is a myosin projection, consisting of two myosin heads, that extends from the thick filaments. Each myosin head has two binding sites: one for ATP and another for actin. The binding of ATP to a myosin head detaches myosin from actin, thereby allowing myosin to bind to another actin molecule. Once attached, the ATP is hydrolysed by myosin, which uses the released energy to move into the cocked position whereby it binds weakly to a part of the actin binding site.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer: Each follicle is lined by two layers of epithelial cells.
Correct Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Which of the following forms one of the characteristic and functional cells making up the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: None of the options
Correct Answer: Corticotrope
Explanation:The anterior pituitary, also known as adenohypophysis or pars anterior contains the following types of cells: – acidophil cells: somatotroph cells, which produce growth hormone; and lactotrophs, which produce prolactin- basophil cells: corticotropes, which produce adrenocorticotropic hormone; thyrotropes, which produce thyroid stimulating hormone; and – gonadotrophs, which produce luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?
Your Answer: Splenic cords - white pulp
Correct Answer: Periarteriolar lymphoid sheets - T lymphocytes
Explanation:The spleen consists of:Red pulp – responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells. Red pulp contains sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zoneWhite pulp – responsible for active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths, rich in T-lymphocytes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
In the jugular venous pressure wave…
Your Answer: Consists of 3 troughs and 3 peaks
Correct Answer: Consists of 3 peaks and 2 troughs
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:
Your Answer: It remains latent in the cervical dorsal root ganglion.
Correct Answer: More than half of the population is infected.
Explanation:HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
The transport of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is made possible by fetal haemoglobin. Which of the statements about fetal haemoglobin (HbF) is also correct?
Your Answer: It persists in the newborn until roughly 1 year of age
Correct Answer: The oxygen dissociation curve for foetal haemoglobin is shifted to the left of that of adult haemoglobin
Explanation:Fetal haemoglobin is the most common type of haemoglobin found in the foetus during pregnancy. It transports oxygen from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation. It can easily bind to oxygen from the maternal circulation because it has a high affinity for oxygen. From 10 to 12 weeks of pregnancy to the first six months after birth, the erythroid precursor cells produce fetal haemoglobin. In comparison to adult haemoglobin, fetal haemoglobin has two alpha and two gamma subunits, whereas adult haemoglobin has two alpha and two beta subunits in its major form. And, unlike adult haemoglobin, the oxygen dissociation curve of fetal haemoglobin is left-shifted. Myoglobin is an oxygen storage molecule with a very high affinity for oxygen. Only when the partial pressure of oxygen is exceeded does it release oxygen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
The sympathetic supply to the stomach comes from the:
Your Answer: The medulla
Correct Answer: Celiac plexus
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the stomach and up to proximal two-thirds of the large intestine and has parasympathetic stimulation. The sympathetic chain which begins at the level of he 1st thoracic vertebra and extends up to 3rd lumbar vertebra gives off the celiac plexus which mainly supplies the stomach. The mesenteric plexus mainly supplies the small intestine and is located below the celiac plexus in the sympathetic chain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 64
Correct
-
The ability of the SA node cells to allow ionic flow through channels activated in a hyperpolarized state is known as
Your Answer: Pace maker potential
Explanation:Rhythmically discharging cells have a membrane potential that, after each impulse, declines to the firing level. Thus this prepotential or Pacemaker potential triggers the next impulse. The inherent leakiness of the sinus nodal fibers to Na+ and Ca2+ causes their self excitation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?
Your Answer: Promotion of potassium release from cells
Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes
Explanation:Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:
Your Answer: AGRP
Correct Answer: GABA
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 67
Correct
-
Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?
Your Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:Gap junctions allows for rapid propagation of the action potential from one cell to the other. The cells of the heart are connected by gap junctions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host CD4 cells?
Your Answer: p17
Correct Answer: gp120
Explanation:HIV can infect a variety of immune cells such as CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and microglial cells. HIV-1 entry to macrophages and CD4+ T cells is mediated through interaction of the virion envelope glycoproteins (gp120) with the CD4 molecule on the target cells and also with chemokine coreceptors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 69
Correct
-
Regarding restriction enzymes
Your Answer: Always produce different restriction fragment length polymorphisms whenever genomic DNA is cut.
Explanation:P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
Intrinsic Factor is released by,
Your Answer: Surface mucus cells
Correct Answer: Parietal cell
Explanation:Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are true except:
Your Answer: Knockout models are important in studying roles of sequenced genes with unknown function
Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation
Explanation:In RFLP, polymorphism occurs in 98% of the non coding genome, resulting in no phenotypical change in the organism. A gene is not turned on by a mutation, rather the mutation at the restriction site will alter the DNA and the DNA will now form fragments of different lengths. PCR is a better technique than RFLP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 72
Correct
-
Which area in the GIT lacks Basic Electrical Rhythm
Your Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The basal or basic electrical rhythm acts to coordinate peristalsis and are initiated in the interstitial cells of Cajal, specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach. Thus below the oesophagus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?
Your Answer: Increased venous return
Correct Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole
Explanation:Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase in serum cortisol levels?
Your Answer: Onset of sleep
Correct Answer: Severe emotional stress
Explanation:Cortisol is widely known as the stress hormone. Alterations in cortisol levels have been found in relation to mood disorders, illness, trauma, pain, fear, exertion, and anxiety, amongst other stimuli.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
Where does most fat digestion begin?
Your Answer: Mouth
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact modified forms of which cells?
Your Answer: Stem cells
Correct Answer: Astrocytes
Explanation:Pituicytes are glial cells present in the pars nervosa, the posterior pituitary gland. Their irregular shape resembles that of astrocytes, and their cytoplasm also has intermediate filaments. They differ from astrocytes in that they have large cytoplasmic lipid droplets.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?
Your Answer: Testes
Correct Answer: Adrenal gland
Explanation:Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
An example of cholinergic autonomic neurons are:
Your Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that causes relaxation of the detrusor muscle of the bladder.
Correct Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate sweat glands.
Explanation:All preganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine. The postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system in all neurons is acetylcholine. Postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system mainly secrete Noradrenalin and Adrenalin but at sweat glands and erector pili muscles the postganglionic neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a granulocyte?
Your Answer: Platelets
Correct Answer: Eosinophil
Explanation:Granulocytes are a category of white blood cells characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm. There are three principal types of granulocytes, distinguished by their appearance under Wright’s stain:Basophil granulocytesEosinophil granulocytesNeutrophil granulocytes
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
