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  • Question 1 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer: Cytokines

      Correct Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the function of basic electrical rhythm ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of basic electrical rhythm

      Your Answer: Peristalsis

      Correct Answer: To coordinate peristalsis and other motor activity

      Explanation:

      The basal or basic electrical rhythm (BER) or electrical control activity (ECA) determines the frequency of the contractions in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thus acting to coordinate peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Correct

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed:Paracetamol: 14 mg/lINR: 1Liver enzymes: No abnormality detectedBilirubin: Mild elevationHe was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated:Bilirubin: Within normal limitsUrea: 21 mmol/lCreatinine: 300 µmol/lWhat is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury. Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.Management:NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.Other options:-There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.- Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.- Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to...

    Correct

    • The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?

      Your Answer: Golgi tendon organ

      Explanation:

      Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function: ...

    Correct

    • The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function:

      Your Answer: Highly fenestrated, large subendothelial spaces, many macrophages

      Explanation:

      Substances absorbed in the intestines reach the liver via the portal vein and contain toxic substances that needs to be detoxified in hepatocytes. Thus, hepatic sinusoids are fenestrated and contain large spaces which allows passage of substances freely. These fenestrations are rich in Kupffer cells which are macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except: ...

    Correct

    • The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except:

      Your Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Endothelin: This is incorrect in the context of vasodilation. Endothelin is actually a potent vasoconstrictor produced by the endothelium, leading to the narrowing of blood vessels and increased blood pressure.

      Nitrous oxide (Nitric oxide): This is correct for vasodilation. Nitric oxide is a powerful vasodilator produced by the endothelium, which helps relax and widen blood vessels.

      Prostacyclin: This is correct for vasodilation. Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, helping to maintain blood flow and reduce clot formation.

      Endothelial-derived hyperpolarizing factor (EDHF): This is correct for vasodilation. EDHF causes vasodilation by hyperpolarizing the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels.

      Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF): This is correct for vasodilation. VEGF primarily promotes the growth of new blood vessels but also has vasodilatory effects through nitric oxide production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: Localisation of native nucleic acid sequences within cells is part of insitu hybridisation

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods do NOT contain high levels of folate?

      Your Answer: Yellow vegetables

      Explanation:

      Folate naturally occurs in a wide variety of foods, including vegetables (particularly dark green leafy vegetables), fruits and fruit juices, nuts, beans, peas, dairy products, poultry and meat, eggs, seafood, grains, and some beers. Avocado, beetroot, spinach, liver, yeast, asparagus, and Brussels sprouts are among the foods with the highest levels of folate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Is also called ubiquitination

      Correct Answer: Occurs in the kidney & liver

      Explanation:

      Oxidative deamination is a form of deamination that generates α-keto acids and other oxidized products from amine-containing compounds, and occurs largely in the liver and kidney. Oxidative deamination is an important step in the catabolism of amino acids, generating a more metabolizable form of the amino acid, and also generating ammonia as a toxic by-product. The addition of ubiquitin to a substrate protein is called ubiquitination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Monoamines are a class of neurotransmitters that include:

      1. Dopamine: A neurotransmitter involved in reward, motivation, and motor control.
      2. Norepinephrine: A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, attention, and stress responses.
      3. Serotonin: Although not listed in the options, it is another key monoamine involved in mood regulation.

      The other neurotransmitters listed are not monoamines:

      • Acetylcholine: This is a different type of neurotransmitter involved in muscle activation and various brain functions.
      • GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid): This is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glutamate: This is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glycine: An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by: ...

    Correct

    • Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:

      Your Answer: Annulus fibrosus

      Explanation:

      The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?...

    Correct

    • Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?

      Your Answer: Somatotroph

      Explanation:

      Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1? ...

    Correct

    • With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver produces an important amount of T3 by outer ring deiodination thanks to its elevated concentration of type I deiodinase. It can also be found in the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following pairs are correct concerning arteriolar tone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairs are correct concerning arteriolar tone?

      Your Answer: Neural control: vasoconstriction activated by sympathetic nerves

      Correct Answer: Hormonal control: catecholamines affect the adrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines released from the adrenal medulla act on the noradrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscles. In the skeletal muscles and liver it causes vasodilation whilst it causes vasoconstriction in the rest of the blood vessels of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The choroid plexus: ...

    Correct

    • The choroid plexus:

      Your Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is a vascular structure found in all cerebral ventricles. The functional unit of the choroid plexus, composed of a capillary, enveloped by a layer of differentiated ependymal epithelium. Unlike the capillaries that form the blood-brain barrier, choroid plexus capillaries are fenestrated and have no tight junctions. The endothelium, therefore, does not form a barrier to the movement of small molecules. Instead, the blood-CSF barrier at the choroid plexus is formed by the epithelial cells and the tight junctions that link them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided? ...

    Correct

    • Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The functional division of the cerebellum are the: Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe), Spinocerebellum (vermis and associated areas in the midline) and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and...

    Correct

    • The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and the hormone ____.

      Your Answer: Vagus, CCK

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine, and causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively. It also acts as a hunger suppressant. Release of CCK is stimulated by monitor peptide released by pancreatic acinar cells as well as CCK-releasing protein, a paracrine factor secreted by enterocytes in the gastrointestinal mucosa. In addition, release of acetylcholine by the parasympathetic nerve fibers of the vagus nerve also stimulate its secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland receives its blood supply from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries. The recurrent laryngeal nerves emerges from the superior thoracic outlet bounded in part by the thyroid lobe. Two pairs of parathyroid glands lie near the thyroid. The common carotid artery splits into its external and internal branches at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage; these branches are separated by the gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+...

    Incorrect

    • Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+ to troponin C results in all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Formation of myosin/troponin i cross-bridges

      Correct Answer: Weakening of the troponin i interaction with actin

      Explanation:

      At rest, troponin i is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When Calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin i which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - G cells release which of the following substances ...

    Correct

    • G cells release which of the following substances

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Its composition resembles that of brain ECF

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid a day is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has a different electrolyte level. About 80% of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. It is also produced by a single layer of column shaped ependymal cells. The composition and rate of CSF generation depends on several factors and is influenced by hormones and the content and pressure of blood and CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase in serum cortisol levels?

      Your Answer: Severe emotional stress

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is widely known as the stress hormone. Alterations in cortisol levels have been found in relation to mood disorders, illness, trauma, pain, fear, exertion, and anxiety, amongst other stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (22/30) 73%
Gastrointestinal (2/4) 50%
Connective Tissue (3/3) 100%
Neurology (6/6) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/5) 60%
Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (4/5) 80%
Passmed