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  • Question 1 - You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach'...

    Incorrect

    • You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).

      Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: From day 12 to day 17

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      91.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne...

    Correct

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?

      Your Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Engagement of the foetus can be defined as: ...

    Correct

    • Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:

      Your Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by: ...

    Correct

    • In a non-ovulating follicle, follicular growth is followed by:

      Your Answer: Atresia

      Explanation:

      During the ovulatory cycle, only one follicle will ovulate. The remaining non-ovulating follicles undergo disintegration. This process is known as atresia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known...

    Incorrect

    • A patient at 15 weeks gestation undergoes an abortion. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Stat dose metronidazole 1g rectally at time of abortion

      Correct Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      First trimester abortions are performed using mifepristone 600 mg followed by insertion of 1 mg gemeprost vaginal pessary. The patients stays in the hospital for about 4-6 hours. At the time of abortion azithromycin 1 g and metronidazole 800 mg should be given to cover the gram positive and negative bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Correct

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of...

    Correct

    • In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of the following strategies is recommended?

      Your Answer: A Hb of less than 10.5g/l should prompt haematinics and exclusion of haemoglobinopathies

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by iron or folate deficiency, however, a wide variety of other causes may be considered, especially if the haemoglobin value is below 9.0 g/dL. A haemoglobin level of 11 g/dL or more is considered normal early in pregnancy, with the upper limit of the ‘normal range’ dropping to 10.5 g/dL by 28 weeks gestation. Haemoglobin < 10.5 g/dl in the antenatal period, one should exclude haemoglobinopathies and consider haematinic deficiency. Oral iron is 1st line treatment for iron deficiency. Anaemia not due to haematinic deficiency will not respond to any form of iron. This should be managed with transfusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine.

      The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
      Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
      It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.

      This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).

      PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
      Symptoms and their timing
      A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
      Symptoms
      B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
      1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
      2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
      3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
      4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
      C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
      1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
      2) Subjective concentration problems
      3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
      4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
      5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
      6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
      7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
      Severity
      D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
      E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
      Confirmation of the condition
      F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
      Other medical explanations are ruled out.
      G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
      The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
      Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serous cystadenoma

      Correct Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.

      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.

      How will you manage this case?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous fluids and keep her nil by mouth

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
      She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.

      The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
      1. More refractory vomiting.
      2. Failure to improve.
      3. Recurrent hospital admissions.

      Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Correct

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of...

    Correct

    • During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?

      Your Answer: Occiput

      Explanation:

      A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules...

    Correct

    • A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:

      Your Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility...

    Correct

    • Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?

      Your Answer: 12.50%

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy....

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy. What is the typical genotype of a partial molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 69 XXY

      Explanation:

      The partial mole is produced when an egg is fertilized by two sperm producing genotype 69 XXY (triploid). It can also occur when one sperm reduplicates itself yielding the genotypes 92 XXXY (tetraploid) though this is less common The genotype of a complete mole is typically 46 XX (diploid) but can also be 46 XY (diploid)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it.

      Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Dysmenorrhoea from the time of the menarche.

      Correct Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.

      Explanation:

      The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6 months are: Testosterone = 3.4 nmol/L (<1.6), Oestradiol = 144 pmol/L (100-500), LH = 12 U/L and FSH = 4 U/L. What sign or symptom is she likely to have?

      Your Answer: Hirsutism

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Biochemical features suggest that this patient has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is associated with signs and symptoms of hyperandrogenism (oligomenorrhea, irregular menstruation, hirsutism, hair loss, and acne) and elevated testosterone. PCOS patients are often overweight or obese, have insulin resistance (treated with Metformin) and an adverse risk profile for cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section deliveries, is rushed to the hospital for an emergency c-section at 36 weeks gestation due to antenatal haemorrhage. Upon examination of the uterus, the placenta has invaded the myometrium but the serosa is spared. Which of the following identifies this condition?

      Your Answer: Placenta Increta

      Explanation:

      Abnormal placental adherence to the uterus, generally termed Placenta Accreta, is divided into 3 conditions.
      – Placenta accreta: refers to the invasion of the chorionic villi beyond the decidual surface of the myometrium.
      – Placenta increta: the villi invade deep into the myometrium but spare the serosa;
      – Placenta percreta: the chorionic villi invade through the myometrium, penetrate the uterine serosa, and may invade surrounding pelvic structures.

      These conditions can predispose patients to obstetric bleeding in the third trimester, often requiring emergency intervention.

      Risk factors in the development of an abnormal placental adherence include previous c-sections. Placenta Previa, is also a cause of antepartum haemorrhage and serves as a risk factor in the development of abnormal placental adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is the most common congenital thrombophilia. Named after the Dutch city Leiden where it was first discovered. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 (Not type 2) thrombophilias Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired (NOT congenital) thrombophilia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation.

      Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective symptoms include:
      – Depression.
      – Anger outbursts.
      – Irritability.
      – Anxiety.
      – Confusion.
      – social withdrawal.
      Somatic symptoms include:
      – breast tenderness
      – abdominal bloating
      – headache and swelling of extremities.
      Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
      Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.

      The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old woman comes to you during her first trimester seeking antenatal advice...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman comes to you during her first trimester seeking antenatal advice as she have a history of pre-eclampsia and obesity.

      On examination her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and BMI is 38.

      Administration of which among the following can reduce her risk of pre-eclampsia during this pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Calcium 1000mg daily

      Explanation:

      This patient with a previous history of pre-eclampsia and obesity is at high risk for developing pre-eclampsia.

      A daily intake of 1000mg of calcium is observed to be helpful in reducing the incidence of any hypertensive disorders and preterm labour.

      Vitamin A should always be avoided during pregnancy as it is fetotoxic.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.

      Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix? ...

    Correct

    • What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix?

      Your Answer: Columnar

      Explanation:

      Its important to note the endo and ectocervix have 2 epithelial types. Where columnar and squamous epithelia meet is the transformation zone (or squamous-columnar junction, SCJ). This is relevant as it is the primary site for dysplasia and is where smears are taken from.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.

      Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: An intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).

      Correct Answer: The OCP and a condom.

      Explanation:

      This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them.

      Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
      Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: FSH induces the granulosa cells to make aromatase

      Explanation:

      The two main cell types of the ovaries:
      1. The theca cells produce androgen in the form of androstenedione. The theca cells are not able to convert androgen to oestradiol themselves. The produced androgen is therefore taken up by granulosa cells.
      2. The neighbouring granulosa cells then convert the androgen into oestradiol under the enzymatic action of aromatase FSH induces the granulosa cells to produce aromatase for this purpose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Correct

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - When does Oocytogenesis complete? ...

    Correct

    • When does Oocytogenesis complete?

      Your Answer: Birth

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management? ...

    Correct

    • Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?

      Your Answer: Good control of blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.

      Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.

      Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.

      The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.

      Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.

      Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
      Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.

      Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after...

    Correct

    • You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs' or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This is one of the defects attributable to Carbimazole use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of...

    Correct

    • With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures.

      Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?

      Your Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.

      Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine

      Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Darifenacin

      Explanation:

      Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
      NICE pathway

      Prior to initiating anticholinergics:
      Bladder training
      Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
      Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
      1st line treatments:
      1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
      2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
      3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
      DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
      1. Flavoxate
      2. Propantheline
      3. Imipramine
      2nd line treatment
      Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
      Mirabegron
      Adjuvant Treatments
      Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
      Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
      Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the...

    Correct

    • An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
      – to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
      – look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
      – examine the placenta for abnormalities
      – identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
      – diagnose a possible miscarriage
      – confirm an early pregnancy

      This is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.

      The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.

      This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      When testing for ovulation the best test is to check the progesterone level. The mid luteal progesterone levels should be checked 7 days prior to the next period. That will be the 28th day in a 35 day cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pubertal events is NOT mediated by gonadal oestrogen production?

      Your Answer: Vaginal cornification

      Correct Answer: Pubic hair growth

      Explanation:

      The role of androgens in the female includes acting as precursors for oestrogen production, anabolic effects, stimulation of axillary and pubic hair growth, sebum production, stimulation of bone formation, and stimulation of erythropoietin production in the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Correct

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?

      Your Answer: History of liver disease

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.

      Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.

      Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.

      Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

    As...

    Correct

    • As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

      As part of postcoital testing, she and her partner should have sexual intercourse on which day of her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 14

      Explanation:

      Post coital literally means “after intercourse” which is when this fertility test is conducted. The patient has intercourse at home usually between cycle days 12 and 15 (or a day around the LH surge as measured by urinary ovulation predictor kits). Afterwards, the female comes to the office and a sample of the cervical mucus is taken for microscopic examination.

      The post coital fertility test (PCT) allows for evaluation of sperm in the cervical mucus and to determine the consistency of the mucus. Sperm must swim through the cervical mucus from the vagina, through the cervix, and into the uterus. Normal sperm will be active and swim in approximate straight lines through the mucus. If the mucus is too thick, sperm impedance can be observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria...

    Correct

    • A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.

      What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
      Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.

      In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.

      The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
      To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In the foetus where is the principle site of alpha fetoprotein (AFP) production...

    Correct

    • In the foetus where is the principle site of alpha fetoprotein (AFP) production

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      AFP is a glycoprotein that is synthesized in the fetal liver (primarily), umbilical vesicles and the gut. It is found in elevated quantities in the fetal serum and peaks at around 14 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.

      These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.

      She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.

      On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.

      Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.

      From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the...

    Correct

    • You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: Osteopenia

      Explanation:

      Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 8%

      Correct Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg

      Explanation:

      Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:

      Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
      Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
      If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
      Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparation

      All other options are not acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Early menarche

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 76 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C
      Fetal heart rate: 144/min

      On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.

      Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.

      For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.

      If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.

      A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.

      Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A patient undergoes medical abortion at 9 weeks gestation. What is the advice...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes medical abortion at 9 weeks gestation. What is the advice regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG

      Explanation:

      All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal...

    Correct

    • An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?

      Your Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.

      Explanation:

      When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.

      Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.

      The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.

      The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose...

    Correct

    • Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test) is diagnostic of gestational diabetes according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: FPG 6.1mmol/L; 2 hour 7.8mmol/L

      Explanation:

      There are several criteria that aid in the diagnosis of gestational diabetes in pregnancy including NICE, WHO and modified WHO:
      GDM Diagnostic Criteria:
      NICE: Immediate FBG >5.6, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      WHO: Immediate FBG >6.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      Modified WHO: Immediate FBG >7.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8

      Random glucose and OGTT 2 hour readings of >11.1 are diagnostic of diabetes in non-pregnant states but are not part of the gestational diabetes criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old lady is two weeks postpartum and in good health. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old lady is two weeks postpartum and in good health. She has painful defecation that is accompanied by some new blood on the toilet paper. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Anal fistula.

      Correct Answer: Acute anal fissure.

      Explanation:

      The history of acutely painful defecation associated with spotting of bright blood is very suggestive of an acute anal fissure. Typically, the patient reports severe pain during a bowel movement, with the pain lasting several minutes to hours afterward. The pain recurs with every bowel movement, and the patient commonly becomes afraid or unwilling to have a bowel movement, leading to a cycle of worsening constipation, harder stools, and more anal pain. Approximately 70% of patients note bright-red blood on the toilet paper or stool. Occasionally, a few drops may fall in the toilet bowl, but significant bleeding does not usually occur with an anal fissure.. After gently spreading the buttocks, a close check of the anal verge can typically confirm the diagnosis.
      Rectal inspection is excruciatingly painful and opposed by sphincter spasm; however, if the fissure can be seen, it is not necessary to make the diagnosis at first.

      A perianal abscess, which presents as a sore indurated area lateral to the anus, or local trauma linked with anal intercourse or a foreign body, are two more painful anorectal disorders to rule out.

      Anal fistulae do not appear in this way, but rather with perianal discharge, and the diagnosis is based on determining the external orifice of the fistula.

      Although first-degree haemorrhoids bleed, they do not cause defecation to be unpleasant.

      Although carcinoma of the anus or rectum can cause painful defecation, it would be exceptional in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Correct

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?

      Your Answer: Increased ovarian volume > 5 cm3

      Correct Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
      1) Oligo or anovulation
      2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism? ...

    Correct

    • Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal is a progesterone receptor modulator that is used up to 120 hours following unprotected intercourse. It inhibits ovulation. The dose is 30 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis?

      Your Answer: 5-25 bpm

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography, also known as the non-stress test is used to monitor fetal heartbeat and uterine contractions of the uterus. An abnormal CTG may indicate fetal distress and prompt an early intervention. Variability refers to the variation in the fetal heartbeat form one beat to another. Normal variability is between 5-25 beats per minute while an abnormal variability is less than 5 bpm for more than 50 minutes, or more than 25 bpm for more than 25 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer: Instruct her to start performing Kegel exercises

      Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular...

    Correct

    • How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular lobule?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      There are between 250 and 400 lobules in each testis. The lobule is a structural unit of the testis with each lobule contained in one of the intervals between fibrous septa which extend between the mediastinum testis and the tunica albuginea. Each lobule contains 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:

      Your Answer: Bacteroides

      Correct Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional cyst

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of functional ovarian cyst is made when the cyst measures more than 3 cm and rarely grows more than 10 cm. It appears as a simple anechoic unilocular cyst on USS. It is usually asymptomatic. If it is symptomatic then laparoscopic cystectomy should be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100,000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Incorrect

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Down’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory...

    Incorrect

    • Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract, which can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. About 15 percent of women with this infection may develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which poses risks of long term consequences: ectopic pregnancy, infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Correct

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

      She has a three year old child who was fathered by the same partner. This first child was conceived spontaneously and delivered normally following a short labour.

      Her medical history includes irregular menstrual cycles, with periods occurring every three to four months.

      A pelvic ultrasound reveals 15-20 small cysts (4- 6 mm in diameter) in each ovary.

      Semen analysis, of her partner, shows a sperm count of ten million per mL, with 50% motility and 30% abnormal forms.

      Which one of the following is the best next step to treat her infertility?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic ovarian drilling.

      Correct Answer: Treatment with metformin.

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis of polycystic ovaries (PCO) is confirmed by the ultrasound. Therefore, the best next step to treat this woman’s infertility is to start treatment with metformin (correct answer). Patients with polycystic ovaries, frequently develop insulin resistance and metformin has been shown to be beneficial in this situation. Metformin treatment corrects any metabolic abnormalities and decreases insulin resistance resulting in a return of normal ovulatory menstrual cycles and a rapid improvement in fertility.

      Additional treatment with clomiphene citrate may be required in some patients but gonadotrophin therapy is no longer commonly used.

      Clomiphene citrate could also have been recommended as a possible next treatment option since the available data indicate that both clomiphene and metformin are equally effective.

      Laparoscopic ovarian drilling has been used previously to treat polycystic ovaries; however, it is only used nowadays when all other treatment methods have been ineffective.

      Similarly, gonadotrophin therapy or in vitro fertilisation would not be the best next step to treat the infertility and they are used when other treatment options have not provided the required results.

      Even though changes in the semen analysis have been noted since the first pregnancy was achieved, these are not likely to be the cause of the secondary infertility, particularly because the current semen analysis is not significantly abnormal. Therefore, it is unlikely that donor insemination would be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prevention of thrombosis

      Explanation:

      The properties of oestrogen:
      Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
      reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
      Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
      Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
      Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
      ketone formation, increases fat deposition
      Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
      Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your...

    Correct

    • A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.

      A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
      Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.

      Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia­ hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
      The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.

      Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
      After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.

      This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.

      – Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
      – Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.

      Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:

      If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.

      If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.

      If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.

      If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your...

    Correct

    • Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your office with soreness down below.

      Physical exam is highly suggestive of genital herpes, and patient says she never had such lesions before and this is the first time she is experiencing such a problem. Laboratory investigations like PCR and culture results confirm the diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management of the case?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antiviral therapy

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman develops primary herpes simplex infection after 30 weeks gestation, her risk for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate leading to neonatal infection increases significantly.
      Below mentioned are the most common risk factors resulting in intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the baby:
      – Premature labor
      – Premature rupture of membrane
      -Primary herpes simplex infection near the time of delivery
      – Multiple lesions in the genital area
      The most appropriate management for such case includes:
      – Checking for herpes simplex infection with PCR testing (cervical swab)
      – Prophylactic antiviral therapy of the mother from 36th week until delivery
      – Cesarean section delivery

      In the case above mentioned, it is better to start antiviral therapy immediately and consider cesarean section to minimize the risk of vertical transmission of infection to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

      Your Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

      Explanation:

      Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: C-section

      Correct Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Call for help.
      • Ensure personnel are available to ‘scribe’.
      Document the time the head delivered, which shoulder is anterior (this is the arm most vulnerable to injury) and the times at which each manoeuvre is employed.
      • Drop the level of the delivery bed as low as it will go, and flatten the back of the bed so the woman is completely flat. Remove the foot of the bed to allow access.
      • Assess for and perform an episiotomy, if needed.
      • Using one assistant on each of the mother’s legs, flex and abduct the legs at the hip (thighs to abdomen, known as McRoberts manoeuvre). This flattens the lumbosacral spine and will facilitate delivery is around 90 per cent of cases.
      • If this fails, suprapubic pressure should be
      applied by another assistant. This should be
      applied over the posterior aspect of the anterior fetal shoulder and will act to push the shoulders together. It can be used in a constant and then rocking motion.
      • If both these fail, then internal manoeuvres are necessary. The order of these will depend on the skill and experience of the person conducting the delivery and the individual case. These manoeuvres have been named after famous obstetricians, but it is the process rather than the name that is important:
      • An attempt can be made to rotate the baby, so that the shoulders enter the diagonal to allow delivery. The first procedure is usually to insert a hand behind the anterior shoulder, and push it towards the chest (Rubin II). This will adduct the shoulders then push them into the diagonal. This can be combined with pressure on the
      anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder
      to aid rotation (Woods’ screw). If this fails,
      an attempt can be made to rotate the baby
      in the opposite direction (reverse Woods’
      screw). Delivery of the posterior arm can be
      attempted passing a hand into the vagina, in
      front of the posterior shoulder and deliver
      the posterior arm by swinging it in front of
      the fetal chest.
      If these all fail, the patient can be moved on to all fours as this increases the anterior–posterior diameter of the inlet. In this position, the posterior arm can be delivered.
      After this, manoeuvres of last resort include a symphysiotomy, in which the maternal symphysis is divided, Zavanelli’s, in which the head is reduced back into the vagina and a Caesarean section performed and intentional fracture of the fetal
      clavicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle:
      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus
      Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius
      Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles
      Roof: Fascia Lata

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below:

      Pulse rate: 64 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C

      On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min.

      Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia.

      Explanation:

      In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.

      An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.

      In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.

      A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: SSRI

      Correct Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?

      Your Answer: Anti-D IgG must be given at time of abortion

      Correct Answer: Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

      Explanation:

      All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 28 year old patient has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2 and she is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Pulsatile GnRH

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins

      Explanation:

      Management of PCOS includes OCP, cyclical oral progesterone, metformin, clomiphene (which is more effective in inducing ovulation than metformin) and life-style changes. In women who are tolerant to these therapies Gonadotrophins should be trialled. However lifestyle changes should be able to improve the condition significantly. Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient who is currently...

    Correct

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient who is currently in labour but is failing to progress. A fetal blood sample is sent for analysis. pH is 7.22. Which of the following is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Consider delivery

      Explanation:

      A normal pH value is above 7.25. A pH below 7.20 is confirmation of fetal compromise. Values between 7.20 and 7.25 are ‘borderline’.

      The base deficit can also be useful in interpretation of the fetal scalp pH. A base excess of more than -10 demonstrates a significant metabolic acidosis, with increasing risk of fetal neurological injury beyond this level. Delivery should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What...

    Correct

    • You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction? ...

    Correct

    • The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      The Mantoux test is based on type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses? ...

    Correct

    • Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

      Your Answer: Togaviruses

      Explanation:

      The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Correct

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - DEXA scans measure bone density by ...

    Correct

    • DEXA scans measure bone density by

      Your Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

      Explanation:

      DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      9.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (12/23) 52%
Clinical Management (10/18) 56%
Obstetrics (14/18) 78%
Embryology (6/6) 100%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Data Interpretation (5/6) 83%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (6/6) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/3) 33%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed