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  • Question 1 - The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related...

    Incorrect

    • The ability of the bacteria to cause disease or its virulence is related to :

      Your Answer: The resistance of the patient

      Correct Answer: Toxin and enzyme production

      Explanation:

      The pathogenicity of an organism or its ability to cause disease is determined by its virulence factors. Many bacteria produce virulence factors that inhibit the host’s immune system. The virulence factors of bacteria are typically proteins or other molecules that are synthesized by enzymes. These proteins are coded for by genes in chromosomal DNA, bacteriophage DNA or plasmids. The proteins made by the bacteria can poison the host cells and cause tissue damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles...

    Correct

    • Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles in the list?

      Your Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve, innervates all the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The muscles of the tongue innervated by this nerve include the extrinsic muscles; hyoglossus, styloglossus, genioglossus and the intrinsic muscles; superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, vertical and transverse muscles. The salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus and the palatopharyngeus muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve. The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve. Finally, the geniohyoid muscle is innervated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) via the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with...

    Correct

    • A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with pain that she points to be on her right shoulder and right scapula. The following organs are most likely to be source of her pain:

      Your Answer: Liver, duodenum and gallbladder

      Explanation:

      Referred pain is felt at a point away from the source of the pain or the unpleasant sensation. It arises when a nerve is damaged or compressed at a point but the pain is felt at another site that is the territory of that nerve. Common abdominal causes of referred pain to the shoulder and the shoulder blade are the liver, duodenum and gall bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?

      Your Answer: Lumbar triangle

      Explanation:

      The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      124.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Correct

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Correct

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The gluteus medius muscle: ...

    Incorrect

    • The gluteus medius muscle:

      Your Answer: Attaches to the linea aspera of the femur

      Correct Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?

      Your Answer: Femoral branch of the genitofemoral

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.

      The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.

      The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.

      The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of:

      Your Answer: 0.2–1.1 m/s

      Correct Answer: 1.5–4.0 m/s

      Explanation:

      Purkinje fibres control the heart rate along with the sinoatrial node (SA node) and the atrioventricular node (AV node). The QRS complex is associated with the impulse passing through the Purkinje fibres. These fibres conduct action potential about six times faster than the velocity in normal cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough and fever. His sputum culture showed the presence of Strep pneumoniae. Which of the following substances produced by the inflammatory cells will result in effective clearance of this organism from the lung parenchyma?

      Your Answer: Platelet-activating factor

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen peroxide

      Explanation:

      Hydrogen peroxide is produced by myeloperoxidase to form a potent oxidant that eliminates bacteria, but is not effective in chronic granulomatous diseases.

      Platelet activating factor will lead to the activation, adhesion and aggregation of platelets but will not directly kill bacteria.

      Prostaglandins cause vasodilation but do not activate neutrophils.

      Kallikrein promotes formation of bradykinin that leads to vasodilation.

      Leukreines increase vascular permeability.

      Cytokines are communicating molecules between immune cells but directly will not kill bacteria.

      Interleukins will regulate the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary...

    Correct

    • The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Leukotrienes normally function during an asthma attack and work to sustain inflammation. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Leukotrienes normally function during an asthma attack and work to sustain inflammation. Which of the following enzymes would inhibit their synthesis?

      Your Answer: 5-alpha-reductase

      Correct Answer: 5-lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      Leukotrienes are produced from arachidonic acid with the help of the enzyme 5-lipoxygenase. This takes place in the eosinophils, mast cells, neutrophils, monocytes and basophils. They are eicosanoid lipid mediators and take part in allergic and asthmatic attacks. They are both autocrine as well as paracrine signalling molecules to regulate the body’s response and include: LTA4, LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, LTE4 and LTF4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer: Superior pancreaticoduodenal

      Correct Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the past few months. He also has noted blood in his sputum. The patient has no other major health conditions. Which of the following investigative procedures should be done first?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gases

      Correct Answer: Sputum cytology

      Explanation:

      Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test used for the examination of sputum under a microscope to determine if abnormal cells are present. It may be used as the first diagnostic procedure to help detect a suspected lung cancer or certain non-cancerous lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial...

    Correct

    • A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial vein was injured which terminates in the femoral vein. This superficial vein is?

      Your Answer: Great saphenous

      Explanation:

      The great saphenous vein is considered the longest vein in the body. It terminates in the femoral vein nearly 3cm below the inguinal ligament. It begins at the dorsum of the foot in the medial marginal vein and ascends at the medial side of the leg in relation with the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on...

    Incorrect

    • What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?

      Your Answer: Elevation of the eyeball

      Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid

      Explanation:

      The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      100
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that is increasing in intensity. This pain is associated with abdominal distension and faint, high-pitched bowel sounds. An old scar is also noted on the abdomen. An erect abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels in dilated bowel loops. No occult blood was found in stool sample. What is the most likely predisposing factor for his present condition?

      Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Explanation:

      The described features suggest acute bowel obstruction. The scar described points toward previous surgery, which suggests development of peritoneal adhesions that could lead to obstruction. Hepatitis does not lead to dilated bowel loops. Amoebiasis could lead to inflammatory bowel disease, however, occult blood in stool is usually positive. Ileal adenocarcinoma is rare. Meckel’s diverticulum can possibly lea to obstruction but the findings described here are more consistent with obstruction due to peritoneal adhesions from a past surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal
      • Pathology
      96.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Correct

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of massive splenomegaly in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of massive splenomegaly in a 35-year old gentleman?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of massive splenomegaly include chronic myelogenous leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, lymphoma, hairy cell leukaemia, myelofibrosis, polycythaemia vera, sarcoidosis, Gaucher’s disease and malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid? ...

    Correct

    • The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer: Genitofemoral

      Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker presented with epistaxis. Which of the following is true regarding blood coagulation?

      Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) results in depletion of fibrin split products

      Correct Answer: Patients with haemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      A prolonged bleeding time is seen in platelet disorders like thrombocytopenia. Patients with haemophilia A or B have a prolonged PTT but not a prolonged bleeding time.

      Ca2+ is necessary for coagulation.

      von Willebrand factor is an important part of the factor VIII complex and promotes platelet adhesion and aggregation.

      DIC results in depleted coagulation factors and accumulation of fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      89
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following will be a likely sequelae of complete ileal resection?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be a likely sequelae of complete ileal resection?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      The ileum is a part of the small intestine and has a pH of around 7-8 (neutral or slightly alkaline). Its main function is absorption of products of digestion. The ileal wall has multiple villi, which in turn have numerous microvilli. This increases the surface area available for absorption significantly. The cells lining the ileum contain multiple enzymes such as protease and carbohydrase, which aid in the final stages of digestion. Villi contain lacteals which absorb the products of fat digestion, fatty acids and glycerol. Thus, ileal resection will lead to their decreased absorption and increased fat content in the stool. The ileum is also responsible for absorption of vitamin B12.

      Maximum water absorption occurs in the colon followed by the jejunum. Hence, ileal resection is less likely to lead to fluid volume deficiency. Also, most minerals (like calcium, iron etc.) are absorbed in the duodenum, and thus will not be affected by ileal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      30
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (4/8) 50%
Anatomy (6/13) 46%
Head & Neck (1/4) 25%
Abdomen (1/4) 25%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
General (2/3) 67%
Physiology (6/9) 67%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Passmed